UPSC Prelims 2024 — solved PYQs

85 previous year questions from the 2024 UPSC Prelims paper, organised by subject — each solved with option-by-option explanations.

2024 PYQs by subject

Solved questions

A selection of 25 solved questions — sign up free to practise all 85.

Q1GeographyOceanographyPYQ 2024

Consider the following statements: 1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. 2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2Correct
  • DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Correct. The Red Sea lies in an arid belt receiving very little precipitation and has no major perennial river inflow. These factors contribute to its exceptionally high salinity.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 2 is also correct. The Red Sea has no major perennial river draining into it, making it one of the most saline water bodies in the world.

Option B

Statement 1 is also correct. The Red Sea lies in an arid belt with negligible rainfall over most of its basin.

Option D

Both statements are factually correct. The Red Sea's high salinity is a direct consequence of minimal freshwater input from rain or rivers.

Q2Polity & GovernanceEmergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2024

Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam': 1. Its provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 2. It will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. It provides reservation of seats for Scheduled Caste women within the quota reserved for Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1, 2 and 3
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C2 and 3 onlyCorrect
  • D1 and 3 only

Explanation

Correct. The reservation is to remain in force for 15 years (Statement 2), and the 106th Amendment explicitly provides reservation for Scheduled Caste women within the SC quota (Statement 3). Statement 1 is incorrect as the timing depends on delimitation.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong. The reservation does not automatically begin from the 18th Lok Sabha because operationalisation is tied to delimitation after the first census conducted after the commencement of the amendment.

Option B

Incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong because implementation depends on the completion of delimitation based on a post-commencement census, not a fixed Lok Sabha number.

Option D

Incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong. The provisions are linked to delimitation after a future census, not to the 18th Lok Sabha specifically.

Q3GeographyEarth Structure and GeomorphologyPYQ 2024

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks. Statement II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution. Statement III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement ICorrect
  • BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement I
  • COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
  • DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Correct. Dissolved carbon dioxide makes rainwater weakly acidic (carbonic acid), enabling chemical weathering of rocks. Dissolved atmospheric oxygen enables oxidation of iron-bearing minerals. Both processes contribute to rock weathering.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Both statements correctly explain weathering. Carbonic acid from dissolved CO2 causes carbonation of feldspar and limestone, while dissolved oxygen causes oxidation of ferrous minerals. Both are valid explanatory mechanisms.

Option C

Both Statement II and Statement III are factually correct. Rainwater dissolves both CO2 and O2 from the atmosphere during precipitation.

Option D

Both statements are correct. Rainwater is a natural solvent that absorbs atmospheric gases including carbon dioxide and oxygen as it falls.

Q4GeographyClimatology and Atmospheric CirculationPYQ 2024

With reference to 'water vapour', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude. 2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles. Select the answer using the code given below.

  • A1 onlyCorrect
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Correct. Water vapour is concentrated in the lower atmosphere because it enters the air mainly through surface evaporation. Its percentage is highest in warm, humid tropical zones, not at the cold poles.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Statement 2 is incorrect. Water vapour concentration is highest near the equator where temperatures and evaporation rates are high, and lowest at the poles.

Option C

Statement 2 is incorrect. Cold polar air has very low capacity to hold moisture, so water vapour percentage is minimal at the poles.

Option D

Statement 1 is correct. Water vapour decreases rapidly with altitude because it is produced primarily at the surface and condenses at higher, cooler levels.

Q5Indian EconomyFinancial MarketsPYQ 2024

If the United States were to default on its Treasury obligations, holders of US Treasury Bonds would face payment risk because:

  • ATheir claim depends on the credit and promise of the US GovernmentCorrect
  • BTreasury bonds are always backed by physical gold kept with investors
  • CThey can never legally claim any payment under any circumstances
  • DTreasury bonds are not debt instruments at all

Explanation

Correct. Sovereign bond repayment rests on the issuer's creditworthiness and legal commitment rather than backing by specific hard assets.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

This is incorrect because US Treasury bonds are not secured by physical gold held for bondholders.

Option C

This is incorrect because Bondholders do have legal claims; the issue is default risk by the issuer.

Option D

This is incorrect because They are standard sovereign debt instruments.

Q6EnvironmentSustainability, Circular Economy and Green FinancePYQ 2024

One of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

  • AHydrogen peroxide
  • BHydronium
  • COxygen
  • DWater vapourCorrect

Explanation

Correct. In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen to produce electricity and water vapour as the only exhaust emission.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Hydrogen peroxide is not produced in a PEM fuel cell; the electrochemical reaction yields water, not H₂O₂.

Option B

Hydronium (H₃O⁺) is an intermediate ion in aqueous solutions, not a fuel cell exhaust product.

Option C

Oxygen is a reactant consumed at the cathode, not an exhaust product of the fuel cell.

Q7EnvironmentEcology BasicsPYQ 2024

Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has co-evolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

  • AFigCorrect
  • BMahua
  • CSandalwood
  • DSilk cotton

Explanation

Correct. Fig trees (Ficus) have an obligate mutualism with fig wasps (family Agaonidae); each fig species is pollinated exclusively by its specific wasp partner.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Mahua flowers are pollinated by multiple generalist visitors including bats and insects; there is no obligate one-to-one insect relationship.

Option C

Sandalwood is a hemiparasitic tree pollinated by various generalist insects and does not display obligate co-evolution with a single pollinator.

Option D

Silk cotton (Bombax) is typically pollinated by birds, bats, and generalist insects rather than a single co-evolved insect partner.

Q8Polity & GovernanceParliament and State LegislaturesPYQ 2024

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3. A bill in regard to which the President has notified intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B1 and 2Correct
  • C2 and 3
  • D3 only

Explanation

Correct. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on dissolution (Statement 1). A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses on dissolution (Statement 2). However, a bill for which the President has notified intention to summon a joint sitting does not lapse because the joint sitting mechanism preserves it (Statement 3 is incorrect).

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 2 is also correct. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses on dissolution.

Option C

Statement 3 is incorrect. The joint sitting notification preserves the bill from lapse on dissolution.

Option D

Statement 3 is incorrect. The joint sitting provision under Article 108 specifically prevents such a bill from lapsing.

Q9Polity & GovernanceJudiciaryPYQ 2024

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

  • AA government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action
  • BThe Parliament or legislative Assembly to pass a law on prohibition
  • CThe lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a caseCorrect
  • DThe Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy

Explanation

Correct. A writ of prohibition is issued by a superior court to an inferior court or tribunal to stop proceedings that exceed jurisdiction or violate the law. It is preventive in nature, unlike certiorari which quashes a decision already made.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

A writ of prohibition is not directed at government officers to prevent executive action. That function is served by other writs like mandamus or injunctions.

Option B

Courts cannot direct Parliament or legislatures to pass laws. This would violate the separation of powers and is not the function of the writ of prohibition.

Option D

The writ of prohibition is directed at judicial or quasi-judicial bodies, not at the executive government to stop policy implementation.

Q10GeographyEarth Structure and GeomorphologyPYQ 2024

Consider the following: 1. Pyroclastic debris 2. Ash and dust 3. Nitrogen compounds 4. Sulphur compounds How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll fourCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Volcanic eruptions eject solid materials such as pyroclastic debris, ash and dust, and also release gases containing sulphur compounds (SO2, H2S) and nitrogen compounds along with water vapour and CO2.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Volcanic eruptions produce far more than one of these. Pyroclasts, ash, and volcanic gases containing nitrogen and sulphur compounds are all well-documented volcanic products.

Option B

All four items are volcanic products. Besides solid ejecta like pyroclasts and ash, volcanoes release gases including SO2, H2S, and nitrogen oxides.

Option C

All four are correct, not just three. Volcanic gases contain both sulphur compounds (SO2, H2S) and nitrogen compounds alongside the solid pyroclastic debris and ash.

Q11Polity & GovernancePhilosophy of the ConstitutionPYQ 2024

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IXA of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3Correct

Explanation

Correct. Part IXA deals with Municipalities (added by the 74th Amendment), Part XVIII covers Emergency Provisions, and Part XX contains Article 368 relating to the amendment of the Constitution. All three statements correctly identify the relevant Parts.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Incomplete. Statement 3 is also correct. Part XX of the Constitution contains Article 368 dealing with the power and procedure to amend the Constitution.

Option B

Incomplete. Statement 1 is also correct. Part IXA (Articles 243P to 243ZG) was added by the 74th Amendment Act and deals with Municipalities.

Option C

Incomplete. Statement 2 is also correct. Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360) covers Emergency Provisions including National Emergency, State Emergency, and Financial Emergency.

Q12Polity & GovernanceParliament and State LegislaturesPYQ 2024

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements. While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration: 1. He or she shall not preside. 2. He or she shall not have the right to speak. 3. He or she shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 onlyCorrect
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. Under Article 96, the Speaker shall not preside while a resolution for removal is being considered. However, the Speaker retains the right to speak and participate in proceedings, and is entitled to vote in the first instance on the resolution (unlike the normal casting-vote-only rule).

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Speaker has the right to speak in the proceedings even when the removal resolution is being considered.

Option C

Both Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. The Speaker can speak and is entitled to vote in the first instance during such proceedings.

Option D

Only Statement 1 is correct. The Speaker retains speaking rights and first-instance voting rights during removal proceedings.

Q13GeographyIndian Drainage SystemsPYQ 2024

With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?

  • AGhaghara - Gomati - Gandak - Kosi
  • BGomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - KosiCorrect
  • CGhaghara - Gomati - Kosi - Gandak
  • DGomati - Ghaghara - Kosi - Gandak

Explanation

Correct. Moving eastward after Prayagraj, the Gomati joins first (near Varanasi), followed by the Ghaghara, then the Gandak, and finally the Kosi farther east in Bihar.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The Ghaghara does not join before the Gomati when moving eastward from Prayagraj. The Gomati joins at Jaunpur-Varanasi stretch first.

Option C

The Kosi does not join before the Gandak. The Gandak enters the Ganga upstream of the Kosi's confluence.

Option D

While Gomati precedes Ghaghara, the Kosi does not join before the Gandak. The correct eastward order ends with Gandak before Kosi.

Q14EnvironmentBiodiversityPYQ 2024

Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the 'vermin' category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  • BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  • CStatement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrectCorrect
  • DStatement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Correct. The Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus medius) has been listed under the vermin category of the Wildlife Protection Act. However, it is a fruit bat feeding on fruits and flower nectar, not a blood-feeder.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement II is factually wrong. The Indian Flying Fox is a frugivorous bat that feeds on fruits and nectar, not on blood. Only vampire bats feed on blood.

Option B

Statement II is incorrect because the Indian Flying Fox is a fruit bat, not a blood-feeding species.

Option D

Statement I is correct as the species is indeed listed under the vermin schedule. Statement II is wrong because it is a frugivore, not a haematophagous species.

Q15EnvironmentEcology BasicsPYQ 2024

Consider the following statements: 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • A1 and 2 onlyCorrect
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. Lions breed throughout the year without a fixed season, and cheetahs lack the laryngeal anatomy to roar. Statement 3 is wrong because male leopards do scent-mark their territories.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Statement 3 is incorrect; male leopards actively scent-mark trees and rocks to define territory, much like lions do.

Option C

Statement 3 is wrong. Leopards are solitary and territorial, and scent marking is a key behaviour used by male leopards.

Option D

Statement 3 is factually incorrect since male leopards prominently use scent marking, urine spraying, and claw marks to demarcate territory.

Q16EnvironmentSustainability, Circular Economy and Green FinancePYQ 2024

Recently, the term 'pumped-storage hydropower' is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

  • AIrrigation of terraced crop fields
  • BLift irrigation of cereal crops
  • CLong duration energy storageCorrect
  • DRainwater harvesting system

Explanation

Correct. Pumped-storage hydropower stores energy by pumping water uphill during surplus generation and releasing it through turbines during peak demand, enabling long-duration storage.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Pumped-storage hydropower is an energy storage technology, not an irrigation technique for terraced fields.

Option B

Lift irrigation and pumped-storage hydropower are entirely different concepts; the latter stores grid-scale energy.

Option D

Rainwater harvesting captures precipitation for direct use; pumped-storage is a grid-scale energy balancing mechanism.

Q17GeographyPlaces in News and Map-Based GeographyPYQ 2024

Consider the following countries: 1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

  • AOnly one
  • BOnly twoCorrect
  • COnly three
  • DAll four

Explanation

Correct. Germany and Norway border the North Sea. Finland borders the Baltic Sea and the Arctic Ocean, while Russia's European coast fronts the Baltic and Arctic seas, not the North Sea.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Two countries from the list border the North Sea, not just one.

Option C

Finland and Russia do not have North Sea coastlines. Only Germany and Norway do.

Option D

Finland lies on the Baltic Sea and Russia's European coast is on the Baltic and Arctic systems. Neither borders the North Sea.

Q18Indian EconomyBanking SystemPYQ 2024

Consider the following statements: 1. Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the RBI's Liquidity Adjustment Facility like scheduled banks. 2. Foreign portfolio investors can hold Government securities in India subject to the applicable framework. 3. Stock exchanges can provide separate debt trading platforms. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B3 only
  • C1, 2 and 3
  • D2 and 3 onlyCorrect

Explanation

Correct. FPIs can hold Government securities and stock exchanges can operate debt platforms, but NBFCs do not access LAF as banks do.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This is incorrect because Statement 1 is incorrect because NBFCs do not have regular access to the LAF window like banks.

Option B

This is incorrect because Statement 2 is also correct because eligible foreign investors can hold Government securities.

Option C

This is incorrect because Statement 1 is wrong even though Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q19ScienceSpace Science and AstronomyPYQ 2024

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correctCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Giant stars have higher nuclear reaction rates (Statement-II is true) but this causes them to exhaust fuel faster, giving them shorter, not longer, lifespans (Statement-I is false).

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement-I is actually incorrect; giant stars burn fuel faster and have shorter lifespans despite their larger mass.

Option B

Statement-I is wrong. Giant stars consume their nuclear fuel at much higher rates than dwarf stars and die sooner.

Option C

Statement-II is correct; massive stars have far higher core temperatures and nuclear reaction rates.

Q20Polity & GovernanceElections and Political DynamicsPYQ 2024

How many Delimitation Commissions had been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

  • AOne
  • BTwo
  • CThree
  • DFourCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Delimitation Commissions were set up in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002, making a total of four up to December 2023.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Incorrect. There have been more than one Delimitation Commission since independence.

Option B

Incorrect. Two is an undercount; Delimitation Commissions were set up in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002.

Option C

Incorrect. Three is still an undercount; a fourth Commission was constituted in 2002.

Q21History & CultureAdvent of Europeans and Company RulePYQ 2024

Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

  • AKrishnadevarayaCorrect
  • BNarasimha Saluva
  • CMuhammad Shah III
  • DYusuf Adil Shah

Explanation

Correct. Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire maintained friendly commercial relations with the Portuguese and permitted them to build a fort at Bhatkal, a key trading port on the western coast.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Narasimha Saluva was the founder of the Saluva dynasty of Vijayanagara but is not specifically associated with granting permission for the Bhatkal fort.

Option C

Muhammad Shah III was a Bahmani Sultan and is not associated with the Portuguese fort at Bhatkal.

Option D

Yusuf Adil Shah founded the Adil Shahi dynasty of Bijapur. While he had interactions with the Portuguese, the Bhatkal fort permission is linked to Krishnadevaraya.

Q22GeographyWorld Resources and Economic GeographyPYQ 2024

Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

  • AAlgeria and Morocco
  • BBotswana and Namibia
  • CCote d'Ivoire and GhanaCorrect
  • DMadagascar and Mozambique

Explanation

Correct. West Africa dominates global cocoa production, with Cote d'Ivoire and Ghana consistently ranking as the two largest producers, together accounting for more than 60 per cent of world output.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Algeria and Morocco are North African countries that produce negligible cocoa. Cocoa requires a tropical humid climate.

Option B

Botswana and Namibia are arid Southern African countries with no significant cocoa cultivation.

Option D

Madagascar and Mozambique are East African nations that produce small quantities of cocoa but are nowhere near the top two globally.

Q23Current AffairsDefence, Space and Security in NewsPYQ 2024

Which of the following statements about 'Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct? 1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh. 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune). 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this exercise. 4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. Select the answer using the code given below:

  • A1, 2 and 3
  • B1, 2 and 4
  • C1, 3 and 4
  • D2, 3 and 4Correct

Explanation

Correct. Mitra Shakti is the India-Sri Lanka joint exercise. The 2023 edition began at Aundh in Pune, focused on counter-terrorism cooperation, and included Indian Air Force participation.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 1 is incorrect because Mitra Shakti is the India-Sri Lanka joint exercise, not India-Bangladesh.

Option B

Statement 1 is incorrect; the exercise partner is Sri Lanka, not Bangladesh.

Option C

Statement 1 is wrong; Mitra Shakti involves India and Sri Lanka.

Q24GeographyClimatology and Atmospheric CirculationPYQ 2024

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statement II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement ICorrect
  • BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  • CStatement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
  • DStatement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Correct. The troposphere extends to about 16 km at the equator but only 8 km at the poles. Intense solar heating drives deep convection that pushes the tropopause higher at the equator.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Statement II directly explains Statement I. The vigorous convection at the equator is the mechanism that extends the troposphere to greater heights.

Option C

Statement II is correct. Strong convectional currents are a defining feature of equatorial atmospheric dynamics.

Option D

Statement I is correct. The troposphere is roughly twice as thick at the equator compared to the poles.

Q25GeographyClimatology and Atmospheric CirculationPYQ 2024

Consider the following description: 1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low. 2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. 3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm - 250 cm. What is this type of climate?

  • AEquatorial climate
  • BChina type climate
  • CHumid subtropical climate
  • DMarine West coast climateCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Marine west coast climates have equable temperatures due to oceanic influence (low annual and daily range), year-round precipitation, and moderate rainfall totals of 50-250 cm.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Equatorial climates have much higher precipitation (typically above 200 cm) and higher temperatures throughout the year. The low daily range fits but the precipitation range is more characteristic of marine west coast.

Option B

China type climate (humid subtropical eastern margins) has distinct seasonal variation and a wider temperature range than described here.

Option C

Humid subtropical climates have a larger annual temperature range and more seasonal contrast in precipitation than described.

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