UPSC Prelims 2001 — solved PYQs

58 previous year questions from the 2001 UPSC Prelims paper, organised by subject — each solved with option-by-option explanations.

2001 PYQs by subject

Solved questions

A selection of 25 solved questions — sign up free to practise all 58.

Q1History & CultureGandhian Era (1919-1939)PYQ 2001

The Hunter Commission was appointed after the

  • ABlack Hole incident
  • BJallianwala Bagh massacreCorrect
  • CUprising of 1857
  • DPartition of Bengal

Explanation

Correct. The Hunter Commission (Disorders Inquiry Committee) was appointed in 1919 to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the martial law administration in Punjab.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The Black Hole incident of 1756 predated the Hunter Commission by over 160 years.

Option C

The 1857 Uprising was investigated by other means, not by the Hunter Commission which was established in 1919.

Option D

The Partition of Bengal (1905) did not lead to the appointment of the Hunter Commission.

Q2Polity & GovernanceFundamental RightsPYQ 2001

Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?

  • AArticle 349
  • BArticle 350
  • CArticle 350ACorrect
  • DArticle 351

Explanation

Correct. Article 350A directs every State and local authority to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Incorrect. Article 349 deals with the special procedure for the use of Hindi or English for certain purposes during the initial period after the Constitution came into force.

Option B

Incorrect. Article 350 provides for the right to make representations in any language to any authority, including the Union, for the redress of grievances.

Option D

Incorrect. Article 351 deals with the directive for the development of the Hindi language, not with mother-tongue instruction at the primary stage.

Q3SciencePhysics in Everyday LifePYQ 2001

Assertion (A): The boiling point of water decreases as the altitude increases. Reason (R): At higher altitudes, atmospheric pressure is lower.

  • ABoth A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of ACorrect
  • BBoth A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • CA is true but R is false
  • DA is false but R is true

Explanation

Correct. Both statements are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion. Boiling occurs when vapour pressure equals atmospheric pressure; at higher altitudes atmospheric pressure is lower, so water boils at a lower temperature.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

The reason is the direct cause of the assertion — lower atmospheric pressure is exactly why the boiling point drops.

Option C

The reason is factually true; atmospheric pressure does decrease with altitude.

Option D

The assertion is also true; water boils below 100°C at high altitudes.

Q4History & CultureIndus and PrehistoryPYQ 2001

Which one of the following animals was NOT represented on the seals and terracotta art of the Harappan culture?

  • ACowCorrect
  • BElephant
  • CRhinoceros
  • DTiger

Explanation

Correct. The cow does not appear on Harappan seals. Animals commonly depicted include the unicorn bull, elephant, rhinoceros, tiger, and buffalo. The absence of the cow on seals is a notable feature of Harappan iconography.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

The elephant is depicted on several Harappan seals and terracotta objects. It was one of the recognisable animals in the Harappan artistic repertoire.

Option C

The rhinoceros appears on Harappan seals, indicating that the animal was known to the Indus people, likely found in the riverine environments of the region.

Option D

The tiger appears on some Harappan seals, most famously on certain seals from Mohenjo-daro. It was part of the fauna represented in Harappan art.

Q5Indian EconomyAgriculturePYQ 2001

Which one of the following statements about procurement price is correct?

  • AIt refers to the price at which government agencies procure foodgrains from farmersCorrect
  • BIt is the foreign exchange rate applied to agricultural imports
  • CIt is the retail price of fertilizer fixed by RBI
  • DIt is the customs duty payable by exporters

Explanation

Correct. Procurement price refers to the price paid by public agencies while purchasing foodgrains from farmers.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Foreign exchange rates are unrelated to procurement price in agriculture.

Option C

RBI does not fix fertilizer retail prices in this sense.

Option D

Customs duties are trade taxes, not procurement prices.

Q6GeographyEarth Structure and GeomorphologyPYQ 2001

Identify the correct order of the processes of soil erosion from the following:

  • ASplash erosion, Sheet erosion, Rill erosion, Gully erosionCorrect
  • BSheet erosion, Splash erosion, Gully erosion, Rill erosion
  • CRill erosion, Gully erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion
  • DGully erosion, Rill erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion

Explanation

Correct. Soil erosion follows a progressive sequence: splash erosion (raindrop impact dislodges particles) → sheet erosion (thin layer of topsoil removed by runoff) → rill erosion (small channels form) → gully erosion (rills deepen into gullies).

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Sheet erosion cannot precede splash erosion. Raindrop splash first dislodges soil particles before surface runoff can transport them as a sheet.

Option C

This is the reverse of the correct order. Erosion begins with splash impact and progressively intensifies to gully formation.

Option D

Gully erosion is the most advanced stage, not the first. The process begins with splash erosion at the smallest scale.

Q7GeographyWorld Physical GeographyPYQ 2001

The high density of population in Nile Valley and Island of Java is primarily due to:

  • AIntensive agricultureCorrect
  • BIndustrialisation
  • CUrbanisation
  • DTopographic constraints

Explanation

Correct. Both the Nile Valley and Java have extremely fertile soils that support intensive agriculture, which historically attracted and sustained dense populations.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

While Java has some industry, the primary factor for high population density in both regions is agricultural productivity, not industrialisation.

Option C

Urbanisation is a consequence of dense population, not its primary cause in these regions.

Option D

Topographic constraints can concentrate population but the primary driver in the Nile Valley and Java is fertile soil supporting intensive farming.

Q8History & CultureMughal IndiaPYQ 2001

Which among the following ports was called Babul Makka (Gate of Mecca) during the Mughal Period?

  • ACalicut
  • BBroach
  • CCambay
  • DSuratCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Surat was called Babul Makka (Gate of Mecca) because it was the principal port from which Indian Muslims embarked on the Hajj pilgrimage to Mecca. It was also the chief commercial port of the Mughal Empire.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Calicut (Kozhikode) was a major spice-trade port on the Malabar coast, but it was not known as Babul Makka. It was more associated with the Zamorin rulers and Arab-Chinese trade.

Option B

Broach (Bharuch) was an ancient port in Gujarat but did not carry the designation Babul Makka during the Mughal period.

Option C

Cambay (Khambhat) was an important trading port but had silted up considerably by the Mughal era and was not called Babul Makka.

Q9Polity & GovernanceConstitutional BodiesPYQ 2001

Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

  • ATo audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
  • BTo audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
  • CTo audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
  • DTo control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequerCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Unlike the British Comptroller and Auditor General, the Indian CAG does not control the receipt and issue of public money. In India, this exchequer control function does not vest in the CAG; the CAG's role is limited to post-expenditure audit and reporting.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This is a valid function. Under Article 149 read with the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act 1971, the CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and of States.

Option B

This is a valid function. The CAG also audits expenditure from the Contingency Fund and the Public Account in accordance with statutory provisions.

Option C

This is a valid function. The CAG audits the accounts of government companies, corporations, and bodies engaged in trading and manufacturing activities.

Q10ScienceHuman PhysiologyPYQ 2001

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Substance) — List II (Physiological role) I. Ptyalin — A) Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin II. Pepsin — B) Digests starch III. Renin — C) Digests proteins IV. Oxytocin — D) Hydrolyses fats — E) Induces contraction of smooth muscles Codes:

  • AI-B, II-C, III-A, IV-ECorrect
  • BI-C, II-D, III-B, IV-E
  • CI-B, II-C, III-E, IV-A
  • DI-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D

Explanation

Correct. Ptyalin (salivary amylase) digests starch (B); pepsin digests proteins in the stomach (C); renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin for blood pressure regulation (A); oxytocin induces uterine smooth muscle contraction (E).

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

This incorrectly assigns protein digestion to ptyalin and fat hydrolysis to pepsin; ptyalin acts on starch and pepsin on proteins.

Option C

This incorrectly pairs renin with smooth muscle contraction and oxytocin with angiotensin conversion, reversing their actual roles.

Option D

This pairing is entirely incorrect; ptyalin digests starch not proteins, and renin acts on angiotensinogen not starch.

Q11Indian EconomyBasic Concepts of EconomicsPYQ 2001

Which of the following is the most appropriate measure of economic growth of a country?

  • AGross Domestic Product
  • BNet Domestic Product
  • CNet National Product at factor cost
  • DPer Capita Real IncomeCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Per Capita Real Income is the most appropriate measure as it accounts for population size (per capita), inflation adjustment (real), and captures the actual change in living standards of the average citizen over time.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

GDP measures total output but does not account for population size. A country could have high GDP but low living standards if its population is very large.

Option B

NDP accounts for depreciation but still does not consider population size or inflation effects, making it less useful as a growth measure.

Option C

NNP at factor cost (National Income) is an important aggregate but does not account for population growth. Growth in national income may not translate to improved living standards if population grows faster.

Q12SciencePhysics in Everyday LifePYQ 2001

When light waves pass from air to glass, the variables that change are:

  • AWavelength, frequency and velocity
  • BVelocity and frequency
  • CWavelength and velocityCorrect
  • DWavelength and frequency

Explanation

Correct. When light enters a denser medium like glass, its speed decreases (v = c/n) and its wavelength shortens (lambda = v/f), but the frequency remains unchanged as it is a property of the source.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Frequency of light does not change when it passes from one medium to another; it is determined by the source.

Option B

Frequency remains constant during refraction; only velocity and wavelength change.

Option D

Frequency is invariant during the transition between media.

Q13Indian EconomyBasic Concepts of EconomicsPYQ 2001

National income of a country represents:

  • AGNP minus depreciation
  • BGNP minus depreciation minus net factor income from abroad
  • CGNP minus depreciation minus indirect taxes plus subsidiesCorrect
  • DGNP minus net factor income from abroad

Explanation

Correct. National Income = NNP at Factor Cost = GNP at Market Price - Depreciation - Indirect Taxes + Subsidies. The steps are: GNP at MP minus depreciation gives NNP at MP, and then subtracting indirect taxes and adding subsidies converts it to NNP at FC.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

GNP minus depreciation gives NNP at market price, not national income. National income requires a further conversion from market price to factor cost.

Option B

This double-counts the NFIA adjustment. GNP already includes NFIA (GNP = GDP + NFIA). Subtracting NFIA again from GNP would incorrectly give NDP at market price.

Option D

GNP minus NFIA gives GDP (not national income). This reverses the relationship used to derive GNP from GDP.

Q14Indian EconomyGrowth & DevelopmentPYQ 2001

The most appropriate measure of a country's economic growth is:

  • AGross Domestic Product (GDP)
  • BNet Domestic Product (NDP)
  • CNet National Product (NNP)
  • DPer capita real incomeCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Per capita real income (real NNP or real GNI divided by population) is considered the most appropriate measure of economic growth because it adjusts for both population size and price changes (inflation). It reflects the average standard of living and captures whether growth is actually translating into improved well-being for individuals.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

GDP measures total output but does not account for depreciation or population size. A rising GDP can mask stagnation in individual living standards if the population is growing rapidly.

Option B

NDP adjusts GDP for depreciation (capital consumption) but still does not account for population growth. It is a better measure than GDP but not the most appropriate for capturing improvements in economic well-being.

Option C

NNP accounts for net factor income from abroad and depreciation, but as an aggregate measure it does not reflect per capita changes. A country with rising NNP but faster population growth may show no improvement in living standards.

Q15History & CultureBuddhism, Jainism and Heterodox TraditionsPYQ 2001

Assertion (A): Harshavardhana convened the Prayag Assembly. Reason (R): He wanted to popularise only the Mahayana form of Buddhism.

  • ABoth A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of ACorrect
  • BBoth A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
  • CA is true, but R is false
  • DA is false, but R is true

Explanation

Correct. Harshavardhana did convene the Prayag Assembly (Maha Moksha Parishad), and Xuanzang's accounts indicate that Harsha was a patron of Mahayana Buddhism and used such assemblies to promote it.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

R does explain A because the assembly at Prayag was specifically intended to promote Mahayana Buddhism, as recorded by the Chinese pilgrim Xuanzang who attended it.

Option C

R is not false. Harsha was known to favour the Mahayana school and his patronage at the Prayag Assembly reflected this preference.

Option D

A is not false. The Prayag Assembly convened by Harshavardhana is well attested in Xuanzang's records and Bana's Harshacharita.

Q16Polity & GovernanceJudiciaryPYQ 2001

The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact:

  • AOn its own initiative
  • BOnly if he seeks such adviceCorrect
  • COnly if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
  • DOnly if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country

Explanation

Correct. Under Article 143, the Supreme Court gives an advisory opinion only when the President makes a reference. It cannot initiate this process on its own.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The Supreme Court has no suo motu advisory power. Under Article 143, the advisory jurisdiction is triggered only when the President makes a reference.

Option C

The advisory jurisdiction under Article 143 is not confined to Fundamental Rights issues. The President can refer any question of law or fact of sufficient public importance.

Option D

There is no such limitation. Article 143 allows the President to refer any question of law or fact, not only those relating to unity and integrity.

Q17History & CultureBhakti, Sufi and Sikh TraditionsPYQ 2001

Match List I (Bhakti Saint) with List II (Profession) and select the correct answer: List I — List II I. Namdev — A. Barber II. Kabir — B. Weaver III. Ravidas — C. Tailor IV. Sena — D. Cobbler

  • AI-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
  • BI-C, II-B, III-D, IV-ACorrect
  • CI-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
  • DI-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A

Explanation

Correct. Namdev was a tailor (C), Kabir was a weaver (B), Ravidas was a cobbler (D), and Sena was a barber (A). These Bhakti saints came from artisan and lower-caste backgrounds.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This incorrectly matches Namdev with weaver and Ravidas with barber. Namdev was a tailor (shimpi), and Ravidas was a cobbler (chamar).

Option C

This incorrectly matches Ravidas with barber and Sena with cobbler. Ravidas was a cobbler and Sena was a barber.

Option D

This incorrectly matches Namdev with weaver and Kabir with tailor. Namdev was a tailor and Kabir was a weaver.

Q18History & CultureGandhian Era (1919-1939)PYQ 2001

Who among the following leaders proposed to adopt Complete Independence as the goal of the Congress in the Ahmedabad session of 1920?

  • AAbul Kalam Azad
  • BHasrat MohaniCorrect
  • CJawaharlal Nehru
  • DMohandas Karamchand Gandhi

Explanation

Correct. Hasrat Mohani proposed at the Congress session that the goal should be complete independence, years before the Congress formally adopted the demand at Lahore in 1929.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Azad was a prominent leader but did not make this specific proposal at the 1920 Ahmedabad session.

Option C

Jawaharlal Nehru was a young leader at the time and while he later championed complete independence, the proposal at the 1920 session came from Hasrat Mohani.

Option D

Gandhi favoured Swaraj through gradual means and did not push for complete independence at the 1920 session.

Q19GeographyRegional Geography of IndiaPYQ 2001

The mean annual temperature on the south-east coast of India in the range of: [2001]

  • A22.5 degrees C - 25.0 degrees C
  • B25.0 degrees C - 27.5 degrees C
  • C27.5 degrees C - 30.0 degrees CCorrect
  • D30.0 degrees C - 32.5 degrees C

Explanation

Correct. The south-east coast of India experiences mean annual temperatures in the range of 27.5 to 30.0 degrees Celsius due to its tropical location and coastal exposure.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This temperature range is too low for the south-east coast of India, which lies in the tropics with modifying coastal influences.

Option B

While parts of the coast may average in this range during certain months, the mean annual temperature is slightly higher.

Option D

This range is too high even for coastal tropical India; such temperatures are found only in interior desert regions during summer.

Q20History & CultureAdvent of Europeans and Company RulePYQ 2001

Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?

  • AHaider Ali
  • BMir Qasim
  • CShah Alam II
  • DTipu SultanCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Tipu Sultan of Mysore sent diplomatic missions to France, Turkey, and other countries seeking alliances against the British. His embassies to the French court and the Ottoman Sultan were notable examples of modern Indian diplomacy.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Haider Ali was a capable military commander but did not establish formal diplomatic embassies in foreign countries on modern lines.

Option B

Mir Qasim, the Nawab of Bengal, was preoccupied with his conflict with the East India Company and did not send formal embassies abroad.

Option C

Shah Alam II, the Mughal Emperor, was largely a puppet of the British and Marathas and did not establish modern diplomatic missions.

Q21History & CultureRevolutionary, Tribal and Peasant MovementsPYQ 2001

Who among the following organised the famous Chittagong Armoury Raid?

  • ALaxmi Sehgal
  • BSurya SenCorrect
  • CBatukeshwar Datta
  • DJ. M. Sengupta

Explanation

Correct. Surya Sen, also known as 'Masterda', organised and led the daring Chittagong Armoury Raid on 18 April 1930, seizing weapons from two armouries in Chittagong.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Laxmi Sehgal (Captain Lakshmi) was associated with the Indian National Army (INA) under Subhas Chandra Bose, not with the Chittagong Armoury Raid.

Option C

Batukeshwar Datta was associated with Bhagat Singh and the Central Legislative Assembly bombing (1929), not with the Chittagong Armoury Raid.

Option D

J. M. Sengupta was a Congress leader from Bengal but was not the organiser of the Chittagong Armoury Raid.

Q22History & CultureGandhian Era (1919-1939)PYQ 2001

Who among the following was the President of the All India States' Peoples' Conference in 1939?

  • AJaya Prakash Narayan
  • BJawaharlal NehruCorrect
  • CSheikh Abdullah
  • DSardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Explanation

Correct. Jawaharlal Nehru was elected President of the All India States' Peoples' Conference at its session in Ludhiana in 1939, signalling Congress support for democratic movements in princely states.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Jaya Prakash Narayan was associated with the Congress Socialist Party but did not preside over the All India States' Peoples' Conference in 1939.

Option C

Sheikh Abdullah was a leader of the movement in Jammu and Kashmir but was not the President of this all-India body.

Option D

Sardar Patel later handled princely states' integration but did not preside over this conference in 1939.

Q23Polity & GovernanceParliament and State LegislaturesPYQ 2001

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  • AIt lists the distribution of power between the Union and the States
  • BIt contains the languages listed in the Constitution
  • CIt contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
  • DIt allocates seats in the Council of StatesCorrect

Explanation

Correct. The Fourth Schedule specifies the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) to the various States and Union Territories.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States is dealt with in the Seventh Schedule (Union, State, and Concurrent Lists), not the Fourth Schedule.

Option B

The languages recognised by the Constitution are listed in the Eighth Schedule, not the Fourth Schedule.

Option C

Administration of tribal areas is covered by the Fifth Schedule (scheduled areas) and Sixth Schedule (tribal areas in the northeast), not the Fourth Schedule.

Q24History & CultureBuddhism, Jainism and Heterodox TraditionsPYQ 2001

Who among the following presided over the Buddhist Council held during the reign of Kanishka at Kashmir?

  • AParsva
  • BNagarjuna
  • CSudraka
  • DVasumitraCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Vasumitra presided over the Fourth Buddhist Council held at Kundalvana, Kashmir, during the reign of Kanishka (1st-2nd century CE). Ashvaghosha served as his deputy. This council compiled the Mahavibhasha.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Parsva (Parshvanatha) was the 23rd Jain Tirthankara who lived centuries before Kanishka. He has no connection to any Buddhist council.

Option B

Nagarjuna was the great Mahayana Buddhist philosopher who founded the Madhyamaka school, but he did not preside over the Fourth Buddhist Council.

Option C

Sudraka is traditionally credited as the author of the Sanskrit play Mrichchhakatika. He was not associated with any Buddhist council.

Q25ScienceCell Biology and GeneticsPYQ 2001

Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis?

  • ALysosome and CentrosomeCorrect
  • BEndoplasmic reticulum and Ribosome
  • CGolgi apparatus and Mitochondria
  • DLysosome and Mitochondria

Explanation

Correct per the official answer key. Ribosomes on rough ER are the primary sites of protein synthesis, but this legacy PYQ's official key marks option (a).

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Rough endoplasmic reticulum studded with ribosomes is indeed the main site of protein synthesis, making this the scientifically accurate answer, though the official PYQ key differs.

Option C

Golgi apparatus packages and modifies proteins after synthesis; mitochondria produce ATP but are not primary protein synthesis sites.

Option D

Lysosomes degrade materials and mitochondria generate energy; neither is primarily responsible for protein synthesis.

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