UPSC Prelims 2026 — solved PYQs

Question 1

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents: (A) A joyous folk dance (B) Buddha in a meditative pose (C) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha (D) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Accepted Answer

(A) A joyous folk dance — UPSC provisional key: (A), Series A question 6. The Hallisalasya scene depicts an animated group of dancers and musicians. Its subject is collective musical performance, which explains the choice of joyous folk dance. The Bagh caves’ Buddhist setting should not lead one to assume that every surviving mural shows the Buddha. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Chronology of Gujarat — Bagh dance-panel description citing E. B. Havell’s 1927 study]()

Question 2

Consider the following assertion: The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.
Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?
1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(D) 1, 2 and 3 — UPSC provisional key: (D), Series A question 18. The three statements describe the electoral mechanism, its colonial political use and the resulting incentives for group mobilisation. The 1919 reforms retained and extended communal representation. This should not be read as saying that every disadvantaged group received a separate electorate in 1919: the later Depressed Classes debate and the 1932 Communal Award belong to a subsequent stage. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [IGNOU — Communal Representation and Poona Pact, Unit11]() · [IGNOU — Colonisation PartII, constitutional representation]()

Question 3

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched? (A) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat (B) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam (C) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh (D) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Accepted Answer

(C) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 83. The HCL–Foxconn joint venture is located near Jewar airport in the YEIDA area of Uttar Pradesh, not Madhya Pradesh. The other three projects are correctly paired with Gujarat, Assam and Odisha. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Cabinet: HCL–Foxconn semiconductor unit in Uttar Pradesh]() · [PIB: semiconductor plants in India, September 2025]()

Question 4

Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?
1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 only (D) 3 only

Accepted Answer

(B) 1 and 3 only — UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 77. BSI, Kolkata, leads Ecosystem Survey and Analysis, while IIFM, Bhopal, leads Capacity Development Support. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is led by ICFRE, Dehradun, so statements 1 and 3 alone are correct. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [NIRANTAR: Ecosystem Survey and Analysis]() · [NIRANTAR: Research and Management of Ecosystem Service]() · [NIRANTAR: Capacity Development Support]()

Question 5

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:
I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.
II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.
Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?
1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/ kulisha (axe) and datra /sreni (sickle).
3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 3 only

Accepted Answer

(C) 1 and 3 only — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 10. Item 1 concerns the apparatus for raising water, and item 3 establishes the prior use of oxen as a source of traction. Together they supply the relevant mechanical and animal-power context. Axes and sickles do not answer the irrigation question; prior ox use makes water lifting plausible but is not, by itself, direct proof of every Rigvedic well’s operation. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Macdonell and Keith, Vedic Index, volume I, Avata entry — scholarly scan]() · [NCERT — Bricks, Beads and Bones, agricultural technology]()

Question 6

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?
1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 only

Accepted Answer

(A) 1 only — UPSC provisional key: (A), Series A question 27. The recurring stopover illustrates the value of community protection of migratory birds. Local participation helped turn the Doyang roost from a hunting site into a safer stage on the falcons’ long journey. Satellite tags help researchers observe that migration; they do not navigate the birds back, and the birds have not become permanent Indian residents. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [MoEFCC/PIB — Doyang conservation and Mongolia–South Africa route]() · [Wildlife Institute of India — Amur Falcon tracking study, annual report2020–21]() · [Wildlife Trust of India — Doyang protection initiative report]()

Question 7

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”.
Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct? (A) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean (B) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life (C) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life (D) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Accepted Answer

(B) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life — UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 38. FAO’s Four Betters are better production, better nutrition, a better environment and a better life. Blue Transformation applies these connected goals to aquatic food systems, linking sustainable production and healthy diets with ecosystem protection and livelihoods. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [FAO Strategic Framework 2022–31: Four Betters]()

Question 8

Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:
1. ‘Maitri Setu’, built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 only (D) 3 only

Accepted Answer

(D) 3 only — UPSC provisional key: (D), Series A question 61. Only statement 3 is correct: the Mechi bridge links the Panitanki side in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal. Statement 1 reverses Sabroom and Ramgarh’s countries, and statement 2 confuses Nepal with Myanmar. Check country, town and river separately in bridge questions. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [PIB: Maitri Setu joins Sabroom in India and Ramgarh in Bangladesh]() · [Pithoragarh district: Jhulaghat on the India–Nepal border]() · [PIB: India–Nepal Mechi bridge and Panitanki–Kakarvitta approaches]()

Question 9

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography? (A) The meditation of the Buddha (B) The Buddha’s First Sermon (C) The Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana (D) The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana

Accepted Answer

(A) The meditation of the Buddha — UPSC provisional key: (A), Series A question 12. NCERT explicitly connects the empty seat with the Buddha’s meditation. Early sculptors could convey his presence through a symbol instead of a human figure, so the unoccupied seat should be read within that iconographic convention rather than as an ordinary empty chair. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [NCERT — Thinkers, Beliefs and Buildings, section9.2, p.100]()

Question 10

Consider the following statements:
I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika.
II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.
The above statements have been associated with which of the following?
1. Emergence of urban life
2. Transition to money economy
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Accepted Answer

(C) Both 1 and 2 — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 3. Both associations fit. The literary references and material coin finds support the development of monetary transactions, while coin use and trade were connected with the growth of early historic towns. This does not mean barter suddenly disappeared or every transaction used coins. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [NCERT via IIT Kanpur SATHEE — Kings, Farmers and Towns, coins and trade]()

Question 11

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?
1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 only

Accepted Answer

(C) 2 and 3 — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 26. Statements 2 and 3 are wrong. West Bengal’s Bangladesh border alone exceeds Rajasthan’s international border, so Rajasthan is not the longest-border state. Sikkim borders only West Bengal among Indian states, but Meghalaya also has just one Indian state neighbour, Assam; therefore the word “only” makes statement 3 false. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Ministry of Home Affairs, Annual Report2014–15 — international border lengths]() · [Government of Meghalaya — state boundaries]() · [Census of India — Uttar Pradesh administrative map]()

Question 12

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?
1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Accepted Answer

(C) Both 1 and 2 — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 29. UPSC accepts both statements. The government’s Eri-silk announcement connects OEKO-TEX certification with safety compliance, buyer confidence and access to high-end markets. Read the wording carefully: STANDARD 100 tests textiles for harmful substances against limits; it does not certify that a textile contains no chemicals, nor does it alone guarantee every possible environmental or product-quality attribute. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Ministry of DoNER/PIB — Certification for Eri Silk,20March2025]() · [OEKO-TEX — STANDARD100 official scope]()

Question 13

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct? (A) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress. (B) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers. (C) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents. (D) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Accepted Answer

(C) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents. — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 9. Bardoli’s central grievance was an increase in the government’s land-revenue assessment. Eka opposed excessive rents and associated landlord oppression. The distinction is between revenue demanded by the colonial state and rents extracted within agrarian tenancy relations, although both movements belonged to wider peasant resistance. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [IGNOU — History of India VIII, peasant movements]() · [INFLIBNET — Peasant Movements]() · [University of Calicut — Making of the Indian Nation]()

Question 14

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(B) 2 and 3 only — UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 50. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. MATSYA-6000 is designed for a three-person crew and is being developed through Samudrayaan under the Deep Ocean Mission. Statement 1 is false because the responsible ministry is Earth Sciences, with NIOT developing the submersible. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Ministry of Earth Sciences: Samudrayaan Project, July 2023]() · [ISRO: Personnel sphere for Samudrayaan, three-member crew]()

Question 15

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project—a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
3. Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(B) 3 only — UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 53. Statement 3 best balances integrity, confidentiality and fairness. Limited disclosure to an authorised oversight committee allows the concern to be checked and considered without prematurely publishing allegations or excluding the contractor. It also avoids silently withholding relevant risk information merely to protect the department’s reputation. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [UPSC CSE Preliminary Examination 2026 GS I question paper, scenario as printed]()

Question 16

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?
1. They acted as army fortresses.
2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 (C) 3 only (D) 2 and 4

Accepted Answer

(C) 3 only — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 37. Only statement 3 identifies the purpose of the moidams. These mound burials express Tai-Ahom funerary beliefs and preserve royal remains and grave goods; they were not recreation centres, fortresses or military drill grounds. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [UNESCO: Moidams – the Mound-Burial System of the Ahom Dynasty]()

Question 17

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India? (A) Uttarakhand REDD+ project (B) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas (C) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project (D) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Accepted Answer

(C) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 40. The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project is the answer. Plan Vivo identifies it as India’s first community-based REDD+ programme and records avoided deforestation and assisted natural regeneration activities in Meghalaya. Its community institutions combine forest protection with livelihood support and carbon finance. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Plan Vivo: Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project, India]()

Question 18

Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:
1. World Food Programme
2. United Nations Children’s Fund
3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
4. International Labour Organisation
How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Accepted Answer

(A) 1 — UPSC provisional key: (A), Series A question 70. Only UNHCR has received the Nobel Peace Prize twice, for 1954 and 1981. WFP received it in 2020, UNICEF in 1965, and ILO in 1969, giving one qualifying organisation among the four. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Nobel Prize: humanitarian Peace Prizes]() · [Nobel Prize: WFP 2020 facts]() · [Nobel Prize: Peace Prize history 1901–2000]() · [Nobel Prize: organisations awarded Nobel Prizes, including ILO 1969]()

Question 19

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:
I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.
II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.
III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?
1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 only

Accepted Answer

(B) 1 and 2 — UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 35. Relationships 1 and 2 are correct. PIB’s account links port-led development with improved shipping performance, then presents Sagarmala 2.0 and startup innovation as the next stage of maritime development. Relationship 3 is false because expanding infrastructure through innovation is compatible with the original objective. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [PIB: Sagarmala 2.0 and maritime startup innovation, 19 March 2025]()

Question 20

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation)
A. UNMIL
B. MINURCAT
C. MINUSTAH
D. UNMISET

List II (Period of Operation)
1. 2007–2010
2. 2002–2005
3. 2003–2018
4. 2004–2017

Code (A, B, C, D): (A) 3, 4, 1, 2 (B) 3, 1, 4, 2 (C) 2, 1, 4, 3 (D) 2, 4, 1, 3

Accepted Answer

(B) 3, 1, 4, 2 — UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 71. The UN’s completed-missions record gives UNMIL: September 2003–March 2018; MINURCAT: September 2007–December 2010; MINUSTAH: June 2004–October 2017; and UNMISET: May 2002–May 2005. The matching code is therefore 3, 1, 4, 2. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [United Nations: past peacekeeping operations]()

Question 21

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:
1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 — 596).
2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(D) 1, 2 and 3 — UPSC provisional key: (D), Series A question 7. UPSC provisionally selects all three statements. Place value means that a digit’s contribution changes with its position, unlike older additive numeral systems. However, Mankani is not an uncontested sixth-century proof: Richard Salomon’s Indian Epigraphy discusses the record as probably spurious. Learn the keyed selection alongside that limitation rather than treating “earliest” as settled. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Richard Salomon, Indian Epigraphy, section 2.4.1.3 — academic book hosted scan]() · [University of Würzburg Indoskript — Mankani manuscript/inscription catalogue]()

Question 22

A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called: (A) Green Bond (B) Social Bond (C) Sustainability Bond (D) Sovereign Bond

Accepted Answer

(C) Sustainability Bond — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 92. A sustainability bond dedicates its proceeds to a combination of green and social projects. The distinction concerns use of proceeds; it should not be confused with a sustainability-linked bond whose financial terms are tied to performance targets. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [ICMA: Sustainability Bond Guidelines]() · [ICMA: sustainable-finance principles and bond types]()

Question 23

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 only (D) 2 only

Accepted Answer

(D) 2 only — UPSC provisional key: (D), Series A question 62. Only statement 2 is accepted by the provisional key. Section 173(3) permits a preliminary enquiry, with prior permission of an officer not below Deputy Superintendent of Police, for the specified category of offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years, within fourteen days. This is a qualified initial procedure, not a general licence to delay any registered FIR. Statements 1 and 3 respectively overextend the rule to non-cognizable offences and wrongly require electronic reporting. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [NCRB: BNSS sections 173 and 174, complete statutory text]() · [Kerala Police Circular 3/2026: preliminary enquiry under BNSS section 173(3)]()

Question 24

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 only

Accepted Answer

(B) 1 and 2 — UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 33. Statements 1 and 2 match the islands’ official climate profile. Both southwest and northeast monsoons contribute rainfall, with the larger wet period extending from May toward December. Statement 3 reverses that timing by making December–May the maximum-rainfall interval. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [MoEFCC — Andaman and Nicobar Climate Action Plan, section3.4]() · [IMD MAUSAM research — Andaman monsoon onset and rainfall seasons]()

Question 25

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions? (A) Esprit de corps (B) Equity (C) Accountability (D) Delegation

Accepted Answer

(C) Accountability — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 51. Accountability is the strongest fit because the officer reports misconduct to the appropriate authority and acts against a contractor compromising public welfare. The scenario illustrates answerability and consequences despite pressure from vested interests. Integrity and courage are also present, but accountability is the best match among the listed principles. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [UPSC CSE Preliminary Examination 2026 GS I question paper, scenario as printed]()

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