PAIPrelimsAI
SubjectsPYQsSyllabusCurrent Affairs
Previous Year Questions/UPSC Prelims 2025

UPSC Prelims 2025 — solved PYQs

97 previous year questions from the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper, organised by subject — each solved with option-by-option explanations.

2025 PYQs by subject

  • Current Affairs4 PYQs
  • Indian Economy25 PYQs
  • Environment17 PYQs
  • Geography13 PYQs
  • History & Culture16 PYQs
  • Polity & Governance14 PYQs
  • Science8 PYQs

Solved questions

A selection of 25 solved questions — sign up free to practise all 97.

Q1Geography·Places in News and Map-Based GeographyPYQ 2025

Consider the following pairs: Region - Country 1. Mallorca - Italy 2. Normandy - Spain 3. Sardinia - France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll the three
  • DNoneCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Mallorca belongs to Spain, Normandy is a region of France, and Sardinia is part of Italy. Since each pair assigns the wrong country, none is correctly matched.

Q2Indian Economy·Industry & InfrastructurePYQ 2025

With reference to minor minerals in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

  • AOnly the Central Government can notify minor minerals and regulate their extraction
  • BMinor minerals are outside the purview of the MMDR Act
  • CSand cannot be treated as a minor mineral
  • DState Governments play a major role in regulating minor mineralsCorrect

Explanation

Correct. State Governments are central to administration, concession and regulation of minor minerals subject to the legal framework.

Q3Science·Chemistry in Everyday LifePYQ 2025

Consider the following substances: 1. Ethanol 2. Nitroglycerine 3. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll threeCorrect
  • DNone

Explanation

Correct. Coal gasification yields synthesis gas, which can be catalytically converted to ethanol, used to produce ammonia for urea, and processed into nitroglycerine precursors.

Q4Indian Economy·Financial MarketsPYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: 1. Bondholders are lenders to a company while stockholders are owners. 2. In case of repayment, bondholders generally rank ahead of stockholders. Which of the above best explains why bondholders are usually at relatively lower risk than stockholders?

  • ABoth 1 and 2 explain itCorrect
  • BOnly 1 explains it
  • COnly 2 explains it
  • DNeither 1 nor 2 explains it

Explanation

Correct. Bondholders have creditor status and repayment priority, which is why they are generally lower-risk than equity holders.

Q5Indian Economy·Banking SystemPYQ 2025

How many of the following countries among UAE, France, Germany, Singapore and Bangladesh currently accept international merchant payments under UPI?

  • AOnly two
  • BOnly threeCorrect
  • COnly four
  • DAll five

Explanation

Correct. UAE, France and Singapore are the three among the listed countries where international merchant payments through UPI have been enabled.

Q6History & Culture·Gandhian Era (1919-1939)PYQ 2025

Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme: 1. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth 2. Observance of strict non-violence 3. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public 4. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly threeCorrect
  • DAll the four

Explanation

Correct. Boycott of law courts and foreign cloth, strict non-violence, and the establishment of panchayats for dispute resolution were all parts of the Non-Cooperation Programme. Retaining titles was not part of it; Gandhi called for their surrender.

Q7Environment·BiodiversityPYQ 2025

Consider the following pairs: Plant - Description 1. Cassava : Woody shrub 2. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem 3. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber 4. Mint : Annual shrub 5. Papaya : Woody shrub How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  • AOnly two
  • BOnly threeCorrect
  • COnly four
  • DAll the five

Explanation

Correct. Cassava is a woody shrub, ginger is an herb with a pseudostem, and Malabar spinach is a herbaceous climber. Mint is a perennial herb (not an annual shrub), and papaya is a herbaceous tree-like plant (not a woody shrub).

Q8History & Culture·Music, Dance, Literature and PhilosophyPYQ 2025

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in [2025]

  • ADelhi
  • BGwalior
  • CUjjain
  • DLahoreCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Vishnu Digambar Paluskar founded the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901 to institutionalise Hindustani classical music training outside hereditary court and gharana settings.

Q9Polity & Governance·Non-Constitutional BodiesPYQ 2025

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: I. Directorate of Enforcement — Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 — Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence — Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management — Carries out big data analytics to assist tax officers and detect tax evasion — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

  • AOnly one
  • BOnly twoCorrect
  • CAll the three
  • DNone

Explanation

Correct. The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, and the DGSM also falls under the Department of Revenue. The mismatch lies in the Directorate of Enforcement row — while it enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, it works under the Department of Revenue, not the Internal Security Division-I of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Q10Environment·Sustainability, Circular Economy and Green FinancePYQ 2025

Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana': 1. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. 2. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. 3. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B1 and 3 only
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3Correct

Explanation

Correct. All three statements accurately describe the PM Surya Ghar scheme's installation target, training objective, and skilling goal.

Q11Indian Economy·Industry & InfrastructurePYQ 2025

With reference to critical minerals, consider the following statements: 1. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership. 2. India is resource-rich in all critical minerals identified by the Government. 3. The MMDR Act was amended in 2023 to facilitate greater central involvement in auction of certain critical mineral blocks. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 onlyCorrect
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. India joined the Minerals Security Partnership, and the 2023 amendments were meant to accelerate exploration and auction of critical minerals.

Q12Indian Economy·Public Finance & TaxationPYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: 1. Revenue deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts. 2. Fiscal deficit includes borrowings as a financing item, not as a receipt that reduces the deficit. 3. Primary deficit is fiscal deficit minus interest payments. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3Correct

Explanation

Correct. Revenue deficit compares revenue accounts, fiscal deficit measures total borrowing requirement, and primary deficit removes interest payments from fiscal deficit.

Q13Indian Economy·Public Finance & TaxationPYQ 2025

If the fiscal deficit is Rs. 50,000 crore and interest payments are Rs. 1,500 crore, the primary deficit will be:

  • ARs. 48,500 croreCorrect
  • BRs. 50,000 crore
  • CRs. 51,500 crore
  • DRs. 58,500 crore

Explanation

Correct. Primary deficit equals fiscal deficit minus interest payments, so 50,000 minus 1,500 equals 48,500 crore.

Q14Science·Space Science and AstronomyPYQ 2025

With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements: 1. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. 2. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. 3. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll three
  • DNoneCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Fixed-wing UAVs cannot do vertical landing or automated hovering, and many UAVs use internal combustion engines or hybrid power, not batteries alone.

Q15Indian Economy·AgriculturePYQ 2025

Consider the following statements regarding turmeric in India: 1. India is among the leading producers of turmeric in the world. 2. Turmeric has important culinary and medicinal uses. 3. It is entirely a temperate crop grown only in Himalayan regions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 and 2 onlyCorrect
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. India is a major turmeric producer and the crop has wide culinary and medicinal significance. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q16Environment·International Environmental ConventionsPYQ 2025

Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

  • AThe Asian Development Bank (ADB)Correct
  • BThe Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
  • CThe New Development Bank (NDB)
  • DThe International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Explanation

Correct. The ADB launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific to mobilize investments in nature-based solutions across the region.

Q17Polity & Governance·State ExecutivePYQ 2025

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: Statement I: The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of office. Statement II: No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during the term of office. Statement III: Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • AI and II only
  • BII and III only
  • CI and III only
  • DI, II and IIICorrect

Explanation

Correct. Article 361 protects the Governor from being answerable to courts for official acts (Statement I) and bars criminal proceedings during the term of office (Statement II). Article 194 provides legislative privilege to members for anything said in the House (Statement III).

Q18Geography·World Physical GeographyPYQ 2025

Consider the following countries: 1. Bolivia 2. Brazil 3. Colombia 4. Ecuador 5. Paraguay 6. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

  • AOnly two
  • BOnly three
  • COnly fourCorrect
  • DOnly five

Explanation

Correct. The Andes extend through Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile and Argentina. Among the listed countries, Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador and Venezuela lie on the Andes, while Brazil and Paraguay do not.

Q19Polity & Governance·State ExecutivePYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his or her own discretion. Statement II: The President of India can, on his or her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • AStatement I onlyCorrect
  • BStatement II only
  • CBoth Statement I and Statement II
  • DNeither Statement I nor Statement II

Explanation

Correct. Article 163(1) explicitly mentions that the Governor shall act in his discretion in matters where the Constitution requires him to do so. Statement II is wrong because the President cannot directly reserve a State bill; only the Governor can reserve a bill under Article 200.

Q20History & Culture·Mauryas and Post-Mauryan IndiaPYQ 2025

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradesika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the:

  • AVillage-level administration
  • BDistrict-level administrationCorrect
  • CProvincial administration
  • DLevel of the central administration

Explanation

Correct. Ashokan inscriptions (especially Rock Edict III) mention these officers in connection with district-level administration. Rajukas handled revenue assessment and judicial functions, Pradesikas supervised district affairs, and Yuktas served as subordinate officials assisting in record-keeping.

Q21Indian Economy·Fiscal Policy & BudgetingPYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: 1. Capital receipts either create a liability or reduce the assets of the Government. 2. Borrowings and disinvestment proceeds are capital receipts. 3. Interest received on loans by the Government creates a liability of the Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 and 2 onlyCorrect
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. Capital receipts either create liabilities, like borrowings, or reduce assets, like recovery of loans or disinvestment. Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt and does not create a liability.

Q22Polity & Governance·Constitutional BodiesPYQ 2025

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? Statement I: It recommended grants of Rs. 4,800 crores from 2022-23 to 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. Statement II: Forty-five percent of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. Statement III: Rs. 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. Statement IV: It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

  • AI, II and III
  • BI, II and IV
  • CI, III and IVCorrect
  • DII, III and IV

Explanation

Correct. The 15th FC recommended education-outcome grants, performance-based incentives for agricultural reforms, and reintroduced the tax effort criterion. Statement II is wrong because the recommended share was 41 percent, not 45 percent.

Q23Geography·Climatology and Atmospheric CirculationPYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans. Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement ICorrect
  • BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  • CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
  • DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Correct. In winter the ocean cools more slowly than land, so marine air remains relatively warmer. This thermal contrast causes isotherms to bend poleward over oceans and equatorward over continents.

Q24Environment·Sustainability, Circular Economy and Green FinancePYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter. Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  • BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  • CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
  • DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correctCorrect

Explanation

Correct. The USA is the world's largest ethanol producer (using corn), not Brazil; however, Brazil does use sugarcane as its principal feedstock.

Q25Science·Cell Biology and GeneticsPYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: 1. No virus can survive in ocean waters. 2. No virus can infect bacteria. 3. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll three
  • DNoneCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Marine viruses (bacteriophages) thrive in oceans; bacteriophages specifically infect bacteria; and many viruses alter host cell transcription by hijacking cellular machinery.

Other years

  • 2024
  • 2023
  • 2022
  • 2021
  • 2020
  • 2019
  • 2018
  • 2017
  • 2016
  • 2015
  • 2014
  • 2013
  • 2012
  • 2011
  • 2010
  • 2009
  • 2008
  • 2007
  • 2006
  • 2005
  • 2004
  • 2003
  • 2002
  • 2001
  • 2000
  • 1999
  • 1998
  • 1997
  • 1996
  • 1995

Practise the full 2025 paper

Sign up free to drill every question with explanations, timed mocks, and progress tracking.

PAIPrelimsAI

Structured practice for UPSC Prelims

SubjectsPrevious Year QuestionsUPSC SyllabusCurrent AffairsTermsPrivacy

© 2026 PrelimsAI. All rights reserved.