UPSC Prelims 2025 — solved PYQs

Question 1

Consider the following pairs:
Region - Country
1. Mallorca - Italy
2. Normandy - Spain
3. Sardinia - France
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All the three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(D) None — Correct. Mallorca belongs to Spain, Normandy is a region of France, and Sardinia is part of Italy. Since each pair assigns the wrong country, none is correctly matched.

Question 2

Consider the following statements :
Statement I :
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II :
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct (D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Accepted Answer

(D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct — Correct. Section 15 empowers State Governments to make rules for minor mineral concessions, so Statement I is incorrect. Section 3(e) gives the Central Government notification power, so Statement II is correct.

Question 3

Consider the following substances:
1. Ethanol
2. Nitroglycerine
3. Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(C) All three — Correct. Coal gasification yields synthesis gas, which can be catalytically converted to ethanol, used to produce ammonia for urea, and processed into nitroglycerine precursors.

Question 4

Consider the following statements :
Statement I :
As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II :
Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III :
For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II (C) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (D) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Accepted Answer

(A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I — Correct. Bondholders lend to the company, while shareholders own equity. Creditors also have priority over shareholders for repayment. Both Statements II and III explain the relatively lower risk in Statement I.

Question 5

How many of the following countries among UAE, France, Germany, Singapore and Bangladesh currently accept international merchant payments under UPI?  (A) Only two (B) Only three (C) Only four (D) All five

Accepted Answer

(B) Only three — Correct. UAE, France and Singapore are the three among the listed countries where international merchant payments through UPI have been enabled.

Question 6

Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:
1. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
2. Observance of strict non-violence
3. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
4. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) Only three (D) All the four

Accepted Answer

(C) Only three — Correct. Boycott of law courts and foreign cloth, strict non-violence, and the establishment of panchayats for dispute resolution were all parts of the Non-Cooperation Programme. Retaining titles was not part of it; Gandhi called for their surrender.

Question 7

Consider the following pairs:
Plant - Description
1. Cassava : Woody shrub
2. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem
3. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber
4. Mint : Annual shrub
5. Papaya : Woody shrub
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (A) Only two (B) Only three (C) Only four (D) All the five

Accepted Answer

(B) Only three — Correct. Cassava is a woody shrub, ginger is an herb with a pseudostem, and Malabar spinach is a herbaceous climber. Mint is a perennial herb (not an annual shrub), and papaya is a herbaceous tree-like plant (not a woody shrub).

Question 8

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in [2025] (A) Delhi (B) Gwalior (C) Ujjain (D) Lahore

Accepted Answer

(D) Lahore — Correct. Vishnu Digambar Paluskar founded the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901 to institutionalise Hindustani classical music training outside hereditary court and gharana settings.

Question 9

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
I. Directorate of Enforcement — Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 — Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence — Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management — Carries out big data analytics to assist tax officers and detect tax evasion — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All the three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(B) Only two — Correct. The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, and the DGSM also falls under the Department of Revenue. The mismatch lies in the Directorate of Enforcement row — while it enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, it works under the Department of Revenue, not the Internal Security Division-I of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Question 10

Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana':
1. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
2. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
3. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(D) 1, 2 and 3 — Correct. All three statements accurately describe the PM Surya Ghar scheme's installation target, training objective, and skilling goal.

Question 11

With reference to critical minerals, consider the following statements:
1. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership.
2. India is resource-rich in all critical minerals identified by the Government.
3. The MMDR Act was amended in 2023 to facilitate greater central involvement in auction of certain critical mineral blocks.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(C) 1 and 3 only — Correct. India joined the Minerals Security Partnership, and the 2023 amendments were meant to accelerate exploration and auction of critical minerals.

Question 12

Consider the following statements:
1. Revenue deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts.
2. Fiscal deficit includes borrowings as a financing item, not as a receipt that reduces the deficit.
3. Primary deficit is fiscal deficit minus interest payments.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(D) 1, 2 and 3 — Correct. Revenue deficit compares revenue accounts, fiscal deficit measures total borrowing requirement, and primary deficit removes interest payments from fiscal deficit.

Question 13

If the fiscal deficit is Rs. 50,000 crore and interest payments are Rs. 1,500 crore, the primary deficit will be: (A) Rs. 48,500 crore (B) Rs. 50,000 crore (C) Rs. 51,500 crore (D) Rs. 58,500 crore

Accepted Answer

(A) Rs. 48,500 crore — Correct. Primary deficit equals fiscal deficit minus interest payments, so 50,000 minus 1,500 equals 48,500 crore.

Question 14

With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
1. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
2. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
3. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(D) None — Correct. Fixed-wing UAVs cannot do vertical landing or automated hovering, and many UAVs use internal combustion engines or hybrid power, not batteries alone.

Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding turmeric in India:
1. India is among the leading producers of turmeric in the world.
2. Turmeric has important culinary and medicinal uses.
3. It is entirely a temperate crop grown only in Himalayan regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(A) 1 and 2 only — Correct. India is a major turmeric producer and the crop has wide culinary and medicinal significance. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Question 16

Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'? (A) The Asian Development Bank (ADB) (B) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) (C) The New Development Bank (NDB) (D) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Accepted Answer

(A) The Asian Development Bank (ADB) — Correct. The ADB launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific to mobilize investments in nature-based solutions across the region.

Question 17

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of office.
Statement II: No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during the term of office.
Statement III: Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

Accepted Answer

(D) I, II and III — Correct. Article 361 protects the Governor from being answerable to courts for official acts (Statement I) and bars criminal proceedings during the term of office (Statement II). Article 194 provides legislative privilege to members for anything said in the House (Statement III).

Question 18

Consider the following countries:
1. Bolivia
2. Brazil
3. Colombia
4. Ecuador
5. Paraguay
6. Venezuela
Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries? (A) Only two (B) Only three (C) Only four (D) Only five

Accepted Answer

(C) Only four — Correct. The Andes extend through Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile and Argentina. Among the listed countries, Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador and Venezuela lie on the Andes, while Brazil and Paraguay do not.

Question 19

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his or her own discretion.
Statement II: The President of India can, on his or her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) Statement I only (B) Statement II only (C) Both Statement I and Statement II (D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II

Accepted Answer

(A) Statement I only — Correct. Article 163(1) explicitly mentions that the Governor shall act in his discretion in matters where the Constitution requires him to do so. Statement II is wrong because the President cannot directly reserve a State bill; only the Governor can reserve a bill under Article 200.

Question 20

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradesika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the: (A) Village-level administration (B) District-level administration (C) Provincial administration (D) Level of the central administration

Accepted Answer

(B) District-level administration — Correct. Ashokan inscriptions (especially Rock Edict III) mention these officers in connection with district-level administration. Rajukas handled revenue assessment and judicial functions, Pradesikas supervised district affairs, and Yuktas served as subordinate officials assisting in record-keeping.

Question 21

Consider the following statements:
1. Capital receipts either create a liability or reduce the assets of the Government.
2. Borrowings and disinvestment proceeds are capital receipts.
3. Interest received on loans by the Government creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(A) 1 and 2 only — Correct. Capital receipts either create liabilities, like borrowings, or reduce assets, like recovery of loans or disinvestment. Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt and does not create a liability.

Question 22

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
Statement I: It recommended grants of Rs. 4,800 crores from 2022-23 to 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
Statement II: Forty-five percent of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
Statement III: Rs. 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
Statement IV: It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. (A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) II, III and IV

Accepted Answer

(C) I, III and IV — Correct. The 15th FC recommended education-outcome grants, performance-based incentives for agricultural reforms, and reintroduced the tax effort criterion. Statement II is wrong because the recommended share was 41 percent, not 45 percent.

Question 23

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct (D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Accepted Answer

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I — Correct. In winter the ocean cools more slowly than land, so marine air remains relatively warmer. This thermal contrast causes isotherms to bend poleward over oceans and equatorward over continents.

Question 24

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct (D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Accepted Answer

(D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct — Correct. The USA is the world's largest ethanol producer (using corn), not Brazil; however, Brazil does use sugarcane as its principal feedstock.

Question 25

Consider the following statements:
1. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
2. No virus can infect bacteria.
3. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(D) None — Correct. Marine viruses (bacteriophages) thrive in oceans; bacteriophages specifically infect bacteria; and many viruses alter host cell transcription by hijacking cellular machinery.

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