A selection of 25 solved questions — sign up free to practise all 98.
Q1History & Culture·Ancient Art, Literature and PhilosophyPYQ 2021
With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were famous:
- AJain monks
- BPlaywrightsCorrect
- CTemple architects
- DPhilosophers
Explanation
Correct. Bhavabhuti (8th century) was a major Sanskrit dramatist who wrote Malatimadhava, Mahaviracharita and Uttararamacharita. Hastimalla was a Jain poet-playwright, and Kshemeshvara authored plays including Chandakausika. All three are recognised as playwrights.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
None of these three figures are known as Jain monks. They are associated with the Sanskrit dramatic tradition.
- Option C
These individuals are not known for temple architecture. Their fame rests on their literary and dramatic works.
- Option D
While their works contain philosophical elements, they are primarily classified as playwrights and literary figures, not philosophers.
Q2Current Affairs·Miscellaneous Multi-Subject Current AffairsPYQ 2021
Consider the following statements:
1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 onlyCorrect
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. Oil palm originated in West Africa, though Southeast Asia now dominates production. Palm oil is widely used in cosmetics (lipstick, perfumes) and can be processed into biodiesel.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
The oil palm tree is native to West Africa, not Southeast Asia, so statement 1 is wrong.
- Option C
Statement 1 is incorrect because the oil palm is native to West Africa.
- Option D
Statement 1 is wrong; the tree is native to West Africa, not Southeast Asia.
Q3History & Culture·Early Medieval IndiaPYQ 2021
With reference to the post-Gupta period, which of the following dynasties had established their dominance over large parts of North India before the rise of Harsha?
1. The Guptas of Magadha
2. The Paramaras of Malwa
3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar
4. The Maukharis of Kanauj
5. The Yadavas of Devagiri
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1, 2 and 5
- B1, 3, 4 and 6Correct
- C2, 3 and 4
- D5 and 6
Explanation
Correct. In the post-Gupta transition (6th-7th century), the Later Guptas of Magadha, Pushyabhutis of Thanesar, Maukharis of Kanauj, and Maitrakas of Valabhi were the major powers in North India. Harsha himself came from the Pushyabhuti dynasty.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
The Paramaras of Malwa and the Yadavas of Devagiri belong to much later centuries (10th-13th century) and were not active in the post-Gupta, pre-Harsha period.
- Option C
The Paramaras of Malwa were not a pre-Harsha dynasty. They rose to prominence only in the 9th-10th century.
- Option D
This excludes the Guptas of Magadha, Pushyabhutis, and Maukharis, all of whom were significant pre-Harsha powers. The Yadavas of Devagiri belong to a much later period.
Q4Indian Economy·Banking SystemPYQ 2021
With reference to urban cooperative banks, consider the following statements:
1. Their banking functions are regulated by the RBI.
2. They are free to issue equity shares to the public like listed commercial banks without restrictions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 onlyCorrect
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. RBI regulates the banking aspects of urban cooperative banks, but they are not freely listed entities issuing public equity like commercial banks.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
This is incorrect because Statement 2 is incorrect because cooperative structure and statutory limits do not make them equivalent to listed commercial banks.
- Option C
This is incorrect because Statement 2 is incorrect even though Statement 1 is correct.
- Option D
This is incorrect because Statement 1 is correct because RBI supervises their banking operations.
Q5Indian Economy·Inflation & Price IndicesPYQ 2021
Which of the following is the most inflationary method of financing a government's budget deficit?
- ACreation of new money to finance the deficitCorrect
- BBorrowing from the public through government bonds
- CRaising income tax rates
- DRepaying existing public debt
Explanation
Correct. Monetization of the deficit directly increases money supply without a corresponding rise in output, making it the most inflationary financing method.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
This is incorrect because Borrowing from the public merely transfers existing purchasing power from the public to the government.
- Option C
This is incorrect because Higher taxes reduce disposable income and private demand, which is contractionary rather than inflationary.
- Option D
This is incorrect because Debt repayment is not a method of deficit financing.
Q6History & Culture·Music, Dance, Literature and PhilosophyPYQ 2021
Who among the following is associated with 'Songs from Prison', a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? [2021]
- ABal Gangadhar Tilak
- BJawaharlal Nehru
- CMohandas Karamchand GandhiCorrect
- DSarojini Naidu
Explanation
Correct. Gandhi translated devotional and religious verses in prison, and Songs from Prison is associated with that body of reflective translation work.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Tilak wrote Gita Rahasya while imprisoned in Mandalay, not Songs from Prison.
- Option B
Nehru wrote The Discovery of India and Glimpses of World History from prison but not Songs from Prison.
- Option D
Sarojini Naidu was a poet known for The Golden Threshold and The Bird of Time but not for Songs from Prison.
Q7Polity & Governance·Political Theory and Comparative ConceptsPYQ 2021
Which one of the following best defines the term 'State'?
- AA community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory, independent of external control and possessing an organized governmentCorrect
- BA politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect natural rights and safeguard sustenance
- CA number of persons living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
- DA society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary
Explanation
Correct. In political theory, a State is classically defined by four core elements: population, territory, government, and sovereignty (independence from external control). Option (a) captures all four essential features most accurately.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
This option adds specific functions like maintaining law and order and protecting natural rights, which are governmental roles rather than defining elements of statehood itself.
- Option C
Culture and tradition are characteristics of a nation or community, not necessarily of a state. A state is defined by its political and legal organization, not cultural attributes.
- Option D
This describes a specific form of governmental structure (with separation of executive and judiciary) rather than the universal definition of a state, which can have various internal arrangements.
Q8History & Culture·Advent of Europeans and Company RulePYQ 2021
With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State
2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire
3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani
- A1 and 2
- B2 onlyCorrect
- C2 and 3
- D3 only
Explanation
Correct. Only statement 2 is accurate. The Mysore Kingdom emerged within the framework of the declining Vijayanagara Empire, with the Wodeyar dynasty establishing themselves as the rulers of Mysore from the breakup of the Vijayanagara polity.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is not fully correct. While the Nawabs of Arcot had connections to the Deccan political system, the Nizamat did not simply emerge from Hyderabad State in the manner described.
- Option C
Statement 3 is incorrect. Rohilkhand developed from the settlement of Rohilla Afghans in the Gangetic plains, not from Ahmad Shah Durrani's territorial conquests.
- Option D
Statement 3 is incorrect. Rohilkhand was formed by Rohilla Afghan settlers, not by Ahmad Shah Durrani's forces.
Q9Current Affairs·Awards, Summits and Organizations in NewsPYQ 2021
Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:
1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2Correct
Explanation
Correct. The inaugural World Test Championship standings used percentage of available points, not simple match-win counts, making both statements incorrect.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
The finalists were decided by percentage of points won, not by raw number of match wins.
- Option B
New Zealand's ranking was based on its points percentage, not on winning more matches than England.
- Option C
Both statements misrepresent the ranking system; the percentage-of-points method was used.
Q10Geography·Climatology and Atmospheric CirculationPYQ 2021
'Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees'. This is the most likely description of:
- AConiferous forest
- BDry deciduous forest
- CMangrove forest
- DTropical rainforestCorrect
Explanation
Correct. Tropical rainforests have the fastest decomposition rates due to high temperature and humidity, leaving bare soil. Climbing plants (lianas) and epiphytes competing for canopy light are hallmark features.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Coniferous forests have slow litter decomposition due to cold temperatures, and needles accumulate on the forest floor. Epiphytes are not a dominant feature.
- Option B
Dry deciduous forests shed leaves seasonally and have litter accumulation during the dry season. Epiphytic growth is limited.
- Option C
Mangrove forests are specialized coastal ecosystems with aerial root systems. Epiphytic growth is present but not the dominant vegetation strategy described.
Q11Science·Chemistry in Everyday LifePYQ 2021
Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because:
- AIt is dipolar in natureCorrect
- BIt is a good conductor of heat
- CIt has high value of specific heat
- DIt is an oxide of hydrogen
Explanation
Correct. Water molecules are dipolar (have partial positive and negative charges), enabling them to surround and dissolve a wide range of ionic and polar substances, making water the 'universal solvent'.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Thermal conductivity determines how well a substance transfers heat, not its ability to dissolve other substances.
- Option C
High specific heat means water resists temperature changes, but this property does not explain its dissolving ability.
- Option D
Being an oxide of hydrogen is a chemical description of water but does not explain its exceptional solvent properties.
Q12Geography·Indian Drainage SystemsPYQ 2021
With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of:
- AGlaciers
- BMangrove areas
- CRamsar sites
- DSaline lakesCorrect
Explanation
Correct. Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are all saline or salt lakes located in the arid region of Rajasthan. They are remnants of the Tethys Sea or formed by endorheic drainage in the Thar Desert.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
These are located in the arid Thar region of Rajasthan where glaciers do not exist.
- Option B
Mangroves require coastal or estuarine settings. These places are inland in Rajasthan.
- Option C
These are not designated Ramsar sites. They are ephemeral salt lakes in the desert region.
Q13Indian Economy·Money & Capital MarketsPYQ 2021
In the context of Indian government securities, which one of the following correctly describes the 'Retail Direct' facility?
- AIt enables retail investors to open gilt accounts directly with the RBICorrect
- BIt allows only banks to buy newly issued government securities
- CIt is a platform meant only for foreign portfolio investors
- DIt replaces the need for primary dealers in G-Sec auctions
Explanation
Correct. Retail Direct allows individual investors to maintain gilt accounts with the RBI and invest in government securities directly.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
The facility expands access beyond banks; it is not confined to banking institutions.
- Option C
Foreign investors may access government securities through other routes, but Retail Direct is specifically designed to widen domestic retail access.
- Option D
Primary dealers still continue to play an important role in the G-Sec market and auctions.
Q14Environment·Ecology BasicsPYQ 2021
Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms?
1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3Correct
Explanation
Correct. Cnidarians (e.g., corals with zooxanthellae), fungi (e.g., mycorrhiza, lichens), and protozoa (e.g., gut flagellates in termites) all have well-known symbiotic species.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Protozoa also form symbiotic relationships — for example, termite gut flagellates help digest cellulose.
- Option B
Cnidarians like corals host symbiotic zooxanthellae algae, so excluding them is incorrect.
- Option C
Fungi form mycorrhizal associations and lichens, which are textbook symbiotic relationships, so excluding them is wrong.
Q15History & Culture·Advent of Europeans and Company RulePYQ 2021
Consider the following statements:
1. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order.
2. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there.
3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 onlyCorrect
- D1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. Francis Xavier was one of the seven original founders of the Jesuit Order in 1534 (statement 1). He did not die in Goa — he died on Shangchuan Island near China in 1552 (statement 2 is wrong). The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated annually in Goa on December 3rd (statement 3).
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 2 is incorrect. Francis Xavier died on Shangchuan Island near China in 1552, not in Goa, although his relics were later brought to Goa.
- Option B
Statement 1 is also correct. Francis Xavier was indeed a co-founder of the Society of Jesus (Jesuits).
- Option D
Statement 2 is incorrect. Xavier died near China, not in Goa. His body was later transferred to Goa's Basilica of Bom Jesus.
Q16Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the ConstitutionPYQ 2021
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. Only a citizen by birth can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 onlyCorrect
- B2 only
- C1 and 3
- D2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. India follows the principle of single citizenship and single domicile. Unlike federal countries such as the USA, there is no separate State citizenship in India.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Statement 2 is false. The Constitution does not require the President to be a citizen by birth. Any citizen of India who meets the qualifications under Article 58 can become President.
- Option C
Statement 3 is false. Under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act 1955, citizenship obtained by registration or naturalisation can be terminated or deprived on specified grounds such as fraud, disloyalty, or unlawful trading with the enemy.
- Option D
Both statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Birth citizenship is not a prerequisite for becoming President, and acquired citizenship can be revoked under the Citizenship Act.
Q17Environment·Species Status, IUCN and EndemismPYQ 2021
Consider the following animals:
1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up and protects its vulnerable parts?
- A1 and 2
- B2 only
- C3 only
- D1 and 3Correct
Explanation
Correct. Both hedgehogs and pangolins roll into a ball when threatened. Hedgehogs expose their sharp spines, and pangolins present their tough keratin scales. Marmots escape by running into burrows.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Marmots do not roll up for defence. They rely on burrowing and alarm calls to escape predators.
- Option B
Marmots are burrowing rodents that flee into burrows; they do not curl up into a ball.
- Option C
Pangolins do roll into a tight ball, but hedgehogs also curl up, exposing their spines to deter predators. Both 1 and 3 are correct.
Q18History & Culture·Late Freedom Struggle (1939-1947)PYQ 2021
With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?
- AThe Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICCCorrect
- BThe Viceroy's Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians
- CThe Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces
- DCripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over
Explanation
Correct. On 8 August 1942, the All India Congress Committee (AICC) met at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay and adopted the historic Quit India Resolution, demanding an immediate end to British rule in India.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
The expansion of the Viceroy's Executive Council occurred at different points but was not the event of 8 August 1942.
- Option C
The Congress ministries resigned in November 1939 following the declaration of India as a belligerent in World War II, not on 8 August 1942.
- Option D
The Cripps proposals were made in March-April 1942, months before the 8 August resolution. By August, the Cripps Mission had already failed.
Q19History & Culture·Medieval Art, Architecture and LiteraturePYQ 2021
Consider the following statements:
1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes.
2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim right to the property.
3. The Mitakshara system deals with the matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2
- B2 onlyCorrect
- C1 and 3
- D3 only
Explanation
Correct. The central distinction between the two systems is that under Mitakshara, sons acquire a right in ancestral property by birth (coparcenary right during the father's lifetime), while under Dayabhaga, sons can claim property only after the father's death. Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is incorrect. Mitakshara and Dayabhaga are not divided along caste lines but are regional legal traditions — Mitakshara prevailed in most of India while Dayabhaga was followed in Bengal and Assam.
- Option C
Statement 1 is incorrect (not based on caste distinction) and statement 3 is also incorrect (both systems deal with inheritance rules, not divided by gender in this simplistic manner).
- Option D
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Mitakshara system is not exclusively about male property, and the characterisation of Dayabhaga as covering both male and female property in the manner described is misleading.
Q20Indian Economy·Monetary Policy & BankingPYQ 2021
Which one of the following is most likely to increase the money multiplier in an economy?
- AAn increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio
- BAn increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
- CAn increase in banking habits of the peopleCorrect
- DA sharp rise in import duties
Explanation
Correct. Greater banking habits raise the deposit base relative to cash holdings and support a larger money multiplier.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
A higher CRR restricts banks' lendable resources and tends to reduce the money multiplier.
- Option B
A higher SLR also reduces the fraction of deposits available for credit creation.
- Option D
Import duties influence trade costs, not directly the deposit-creation process underlying the money multiplier.
Q21Polity & Governance·Political Theory and Comparative ConceptsPYQ 2021
Constitutional government means:
- AA representative government of a nation with federal structure
- BA government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
- CA government whose Head enjoys real powers
- DA government limited by the terms of the ConstitutionCorrect
Explanation
Correct. A constitutional government is one in which power is limited and regulated by a constitution. The defining element is legal restraint on government authority, regardless of whether the system is parliamentary, presidential, federal, or unitary.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Federal structure is one possible arrangement within a constitutional government, but constitutional government can also be unitary. Federalism is not the defining element.
- Option B
A nominal head of state is a feature of parliamentary systems, not a defining feature of constitutional government. Presidential constitutional governments have heads with real powers.
- Option C
A head of state with real powers exists in presidential systems. This does not define constitutional government, which focuses on legal limitations on power.
Q22Environment·International Environmental ConventionsPYQ 2021
The 'Common Carbon Metric', supported by UNEP, has been developed for:
- AAssessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the worldCorrect
- BEnabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
- CEnabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
- DAssessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time
Explanation
Correct. The Common Carbon Metric, developed with UNEP support, provides a standardized methodology to measure and report greenhouse gas emissions from building operations globally.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
It is specific to the building sector, not commercial farming or agriculture.
- Option C
It targets building-level emissions accounting, not whole-country carbon footprints.
- Option D
It does not assess global fossil fuel footprints; its scope is limited to building operations.
Q23Indian Economy·External Sector & TradePYQ 2021
Which of the following can be included in the category of Foreign Direct Investment?
1. Foreign currency convertible bonds
2. Foreign institutional investor investment with certain conditions
3. Global depository receipts
4. Non-resident external deposits
- A1, 2 and 3Correct
- B3 only
- C2 and 4
- D1 and 4
Explanation
Correct. FCCBs, qualified FII investment above a threshold, and GDRs can all be counted as part of FDI under RBI guidelines, depending on the nature and extent of the investment.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
GDRs are indeed included, but they are not the only qualifying instrument.
- Option C
NRE deposits are bank deposits and do not constitute FDI. They are part of NRI deposits under banking liabilities.
- Option D
NRE deposits are not classified as FDI. They represent banking capital rather than direct investment.
Q24Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2021
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 onlyCorrect
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. During judicial custody, the accused is lodged in jail, and the investigating officer must obtain the court's permission to interrogate the suspect. This safeguard protects the accused from coercive police action.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is incorrect because a person in judicial custody is kept in jail under the control of the court, not in a police station. Police lock-up is associated with police custody, not judicial custody.
- Option C
Statement 1 is factually wrong. Judicial custody means the accused is sent to jail, not a police station.
- Option D
Statement 2 is correct. The requirement for court approval before police interrogation during judicial custody is an established procedural safeguard under criminal law.
Q25Indian Economy·Financial MarketsPYQ 2021
Government bond yields generally tend to rise when:
- AExpected inflation hardens and central banks tighten liquidityCorrect
- BBond prices rise sharply because of excess demand
- CInvestors flee toward safety in large numbers
- DThere is no borrowing requirement from the government
Explanation
Correct. Higher inflation expectations and tighter monetary conditions usually push yields upward.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
This is incorrect because Bond prices and yields usually move inversely.
- Option C
This is incorrect because A rush into safe bonds often pushes prices up and yields down.
- Option D
This is incorrect because That does not typically cause yields to rise.