UPSC Prelims 2015 — solved PYQs

107 previous year questions from the 2015 UPSC Prelims paper, organised by subject — each solved with option-by-option explanations.

2015 PYQs by subject

Solved questions

A selection of 25 solved questions — sign up free to practise all 107.

Q1Polity & GovernanceDPSPs and Fundamental DutiesPYQ 2015

The ideal of 'Welfare State' in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its:

  • APreamble
  • BDirective Principles of State PolicyCorrect
  • CFundamental Rights
  • DSeventh Schedule

Explanation

Correct. The Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the social and economic obligations of the State and are the principal constitutional basis of the welfare-state ideal, guiding governance toward social justice and material well-being.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The Preamble sets out broad ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity but does not contain the detailed welfare-state obligations found in the DPSPs.

Option C

Fundamental Rights protect individual liberties and are justiciable, but they do not enshrine the welfare-state ideal. The welfare orientation is found in DPSPs.

Option D

The Seventh Schedule distributes legislative subjects between the Union and States through three lists. It is not concerned with the welfare-state ideal.

Q2History & CultureLate Freedom Struggle (1939-1947)PYQ 2015

With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It recommended a federal government. 2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts. 3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • A1 onlyCorrect
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • DNone

Explanation

Correct. The Cabinet Mission Plan recommended a three-tier federal structure for India: provinces at the bottom, groups of provinces in the middle, and a union at the top dealing with defence, foreign affairs, and communications.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Incorrect. The Cabinet Mission did not deal with enlarging court powers or ICS recruitment. Its focus was on the constitutional framework for a future Indian government.

Option C

Incorrect. While statement 1 is correct, statement 3 is wrong. The Cabinet Mission did not address ICS recruitment; it dealt with the broader political and constitutional framework.

Option D

Incorrect. Statement 1 is correct. The Cabinet Mission did recommend a federal-type constitutional arrangement for India.

Q3Current AffairsInternational Relations and Groupings in NewsPYQ 2015

In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Bangladesh 2. Cambodia 3. China 4. Myanmar 5. Thailand Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A1 only
  • B2, 3 and 4
  • C1 and 3Correct
  • D1, 2 and 5

Explanation

Correct. Mekong-Ganga Cooperation includes India, Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam. Bangladesh and China are not participants.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

China is also not a member; the MGC comprises India, Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam.

Option B

Cambodia and Myanmar are both members of the MGC; only Bangladesh and China are excluded from this list.

Option D

Cambodia and Thailand are both MGC members; Bangladesh and China are the non-participants.

Q4History & CultureEarly Medieval IndiaPYQ 2015

Consider the following pairs: Medieval Indian State - Present Region 1. Champaka - Central India 2. Durgara - Jammu 3. Kuluta - Malabar Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  • A1 and 2
  • B2 onlyCorrect
  • C1 and 3
  • D3 only

Explanation

Correct. Durgara is the ancient name for the Jammu region in the western Himalayas. Champaka refers to Chamba (not Central India), and Kuluta corresponds to the Kullu valley (not Malabar).

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Champaka corresponds to Chamba in the Himalayan region, not Central India. Only Durgara-Jammu is correctly matched.

Option C

Both are incorrectly matched. Champaka is Chamba in Himachal Pradesh, and Kuluta is Kullu, not Malabar.

Option D

Kuluta does not correspond to Malabar. It is identified with the Kullu valley in present-day Himachal Pradesh.

Q5Current AffairsMiscellaneous Multi-Subject Current AffairsPYQ 2015

Among the following, which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently?

  • ASyria and Jordan
  • BGuinea, Sierra Leone and LiberiaCorrect
  • CPhilippines and Papua New Guinea
  • DJamaica, Haiti and Surinam

Explanation

Correct. The 2014 West African Ebola outbreak was centred in Guinea, Sierra Leone, and Liberia, killing over 11,000 people.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Syria and Jordan were in the news for the civil war and refugee crisis, not Ebola.

Option C

The Philippines and Papua New Guinea were not the core Ebola outbreak cluster.

Option D

The Caribbean nations were not affected by the West African Ebola epidemic.

Q6Polity & GovernancePolitical Theory and Comparative ConceptsPYQ 2015

There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the:

  • ALok Sabha is elected directly by the people.
  • BParliament can amend the Constitution.
  • CRajya Sabha cannot be dissolved.
  • DCouncil of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha.Correct

Explanation

Correct. The defining institutional marker of a parliamentary system is that the executive (Council of Ministers) is collectively responsible to the popularly elected lower house (Lok Sabha) and must retain its confidence to remain in office.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Direct election of the lower house is a feature of many democratic systems, including presidential ones. It does not by itself define a parliamentary system.

Option B

The power to amend the constitution exists in both parliamentary and presidential systems and is not the defining feature of parliamentary government.

Option C

The permanent nature of the Rajya Sabha is a feature of India's bicameral legislature but does not explain why the system is parliamentary rather than presidential.

Q7GeographyIndian Drainage SystemsPYQ 2015

Consider the following rivers: 1. Vamsadhara 2. Indravati 3. Pranahita 4. Pennar Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

  • A1, 2 and 3
  • B2, 3 and 4
  • C1, 2 and 4
  • D2 and 3 onlyCorrect

Explanation

Correct. The Indravati and Pranahita are major tributaries of the Godavari. The Indravati joins the Godavari in Chhattisgarh, and the Pranahita (formed by the confluence of the Wainganga and Wardha) joins it in Maharashtra-Telangana. Vamsadhara and Pennar are independent river systems.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Vamsadhara is an independent east-flowing river in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh, not a tributary of the Godavari.

Option B

Pennar is an independent east-flowing river originating in Karnataka and flowing through Andhra Pradesh. It is not a Godavari tributary.

Option C

Neither Vamsadhara nor Pennar is a tributary of the Godavari.

Q8Indian EconomyIndustry & InfrastructurePYQ 2015

Among the Eight Core Industries, which one has the highest weight in the index?

  • ACoal
  • BElectricityCorrect
  • CSteel
  • DCrude oil

Explanation

Correct. Electricity generation carries the highest weight (about 19.85%) in the Eight Core Industries index.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Coal has a significant weight but not the highest among the eight.

Option C

Steel has a lower weight than electricity in the index.

Option D

Crude oil's weight is lower than that of electricity.

Q9Indian EconomyIndustry & InfrastructurePYQ 2015

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with Geographical Indication (GI) status?

  • ABanaras Brocades and Sarees - GI registeredCorrect
  • BTirupati Laddu - not a GI
  • CPochampally Ikat - not a GI
  • DDarjeeling Tea - not a GI

Explanation

Correct. Banaras Brocades and Sarees have GI recognition.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Tirupati Laddu has GI status, so this statement is incorrect.

Option C

Pochampally Ikat is a GI, so this statement is incorrect.

Option D

Darjeeling Tea was one of the earliest Indian GIs.

Q10GeographyOceanographyPYQ 2015

Tides occur in oceans and seas due to which of the following? 1. Gravitational Force of the Sun 2. Gravitational Force of the Moon 3. Gravitational Force of the Earth Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • A1 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3Correct

Explanation

Correct. Tides result from the combined gravitational effects of the Moon (primary), the Sun, and Earth's own gravitational field. The interaction of all three produces the tidal bulges.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The Moon's gravitational pull is the primary cause of tides, and Earth's own gravity also plays a role in the tidal bulge formation.

Option B

The Sun's gravitational force also contributes to tides. Spring tides occur when the Sun and Moon align their gravitational pulls.

Option C

The Moon is the dominant cause of tides and must be included.

Q11Current AffairsInternational Relations and Groupings in NewsPYQ 2015

'Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action', often seen in the news, is:

  • AA strategy to tackle the regional terrorism, an outcome of a meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization
  • BA plan of action for sustainable economic growth in the Asia-Pacific Region, an outcome of deliberations of the Asia-Pacific Economic Forum
  • CAn agenda for women's empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United NationsCorrect
  • DA strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a declaration of the East Asia Summit

Explanation

Correct. The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action emerged from the 1995 UN Fourth World Conference on Women and remains a key framework for women's empowerment and gender equality.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The Beijing Declaration is unrelated to SCO counter-terrorism strategies.

Option B

It is not an APEC economic-growth plan; the declaration focuses on gender equality.

Option D

Wildlife trafficking is addressed by other instruments; the Beijing Declaration concerns women's rights.

Q12Indian EconomyMonetary Policy & BankingPYQ 2015

Rupee convertibility means the ability to:

  • AConvert rupees freely into foreign currencies subject to the applicable convertibility regimeCorrect
  • BUse only gold to settle international transactions
  • CExchange rupees only within India
  • DFix the rupee permanently to the U.S. dollar

Explanation

Correct. Convertibility refers to the freedom to convert domestic currency into foreign currency under the prevailing rules.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Gold settlement is not the meaning of modern currency convertibility.

Option C

Convertibility concerns exchange into foreign currency, not internal use of rupees.

Option D

A fixed exchange-rate regime is different from the concept of convertibility.

Q13EnvironmentClimate Change SciencePYQ 2015

With reference to an organization known as 'BirdLife International', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations. 2. The concept of 'biodiversity hotspots' originated from this organization. 3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as 'Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas'. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • A1 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 onlyCorrect
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. BirdLife International is a global partnership of conservation NGOs (Statement 1) and it identifies Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas worldwide (Statement 3). The hotspots concept came from Norman Myers.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 3 is also correct — BirdLife International manages the IBA (Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas) programme.

Option B

Statement 2 is wrong; the biodiversity hotspots concept was developed by Norman Myers, not by BirdLife International.

Option D

Statement 2 is incorrect. The biodiversity hotspots concept originated with ecologist Norman Myers in 1988.

Q14Indian EconomyInternational Economic OrganizationsPYQ 2015

The 'Fortaleza Declaration' is associated with which of the following groupings?

  • AASEAN
  • BBRICSCorrect
  • COECD
  • DWTO

Explanation

Correct. The Fortaleza Declaration was issued at the 6th BRICS Summit in 2014, which also announced the establishment of the New Development Bank and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

ASEAN summits do not produce the Fortaleza Declaration.

Option C

The OECD is not associated with the Fortaleza Declaration.

Option D

The WTO ministerial conferences have their own declarations; Fortaleza is linked to BRICS.

Q15Indian EconomyAgriculturePYQ 2015

Which one of the following best captures the purpose of Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) in the sugar sector?

  • ATo set a support price for sugarcane that sugar mills are expected to pay farmersCorrect
  • BTo regulate the retail price of tea
  • CTo fix import tariff on crude oil
  • DTo determine the exchange rate of the rupee

Explanation

Correct. FRP is the benchmark price fixed for sugarcane payable by sugar mills to farmers.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Tea pricing is unrelated to FRP in the sugar sector.

Option C

Crude oil tariffs are a trade policy matter, not FRP.

Option D

Exchange rates are not determined through FRP.

Q16ScienceChemistry in Everyday LifePYQ 2015

With reference to 'fuel cells' in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements: 1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. 2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. 3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 onlyCorrect
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. When pure hydrogen reacts with oxygen in a fuel cell, the only by-products are heat and water. Fuel cells can power devices of all sizes (not just buildings), and they produce DC, not AC.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Fuel cells produce Direct Current (DC), not AC, and they can power small devices like laptops, making both statements 2 and 3 wrong.

Option C

Fuel cells inherently generate DC electricity through electrochemical reactions; an inverter is needed if AC is required.

Option D

Statements 2 and 3 are both incorrect: fuel cells scale from portable devices to buildings, and they produce DC.

Q17Indian EconomyIndustry & InfrastructurePYQ 2015

The Index of Eight Core Industries covers which of the following? 1. Coal 2. Crude oil 3. Natural gas 4. Refinery products 5. Fertilizers 6. Steel 7. Cement 8. Electricity Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A1, 2, 5, 6, 7 and 8 only
  • B1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8Correct
  • C1, 3, 5, 7 and 8 only
  • D2, 4, 6 and 8 only

Explanation

Correct. All eight listed industries form the Index of Eight Core Industries, with electricity having the highest weight.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Crude oil, natural gas and refinery products are also included, so this is incomplete.

Option C

This excludes several core industries and is incomplete.

Option D

This excludes more than half the index components.

Q18GeographyPlaces in News and Map-Based GeographyPYQ 2015

Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

  • ASyria
  • BJordanCorrect
  • CLebanon
  • DIsrael

Explanation

Correct. Jordan is the only country among the options that does not have a Mediterranean coastline. Its only sea access is through the Gulf of Aqaba on the Red Sea.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Syria has a coastline on the eastern Mediterranean Sea.

Option C

Lebanon has a long coastline on the Mediterranean Sea.

Option D

Israel has a Mediterranean coastline along its western border.

Q19Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2015

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to:

  • AProtect the interests of Scheduled TribesCorrect
  • BDetermine the boundaries between States
  • CDetermine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
  • DProtect the interests of all the border States

Explanation

Correct. The Fifth and Sixth Schedules create special administrative arrangements for tribal areas and tribal populations, especially Scheduled Tribes. The Fifth Schedule covers Scheduled Areas in most States, while the Sixth Schedule covers autonomous tribal regions in the northeastern States.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

State boundaries are determined under provisions such as Article 3 and the States Reorganisation Act, not through the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.

Option C

The powers and responsibilities of Panchayats are dealt with under Part IX of the Constitution (Articles 243 to 243O) and the Eleventh Schedule, not the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.

Option D

These Schedules are not about protecting border States. They specifically address the governance and protection of tribal communities in designated areas.

Q20ScienceBiotechnologyPYQ 2015

With reference to the use of nanotechnology in health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology. 2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2Correct
  • DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Correct. Nanoparticles enable targeted drug delivery to specific cells/tissues, and they also serve as non-viral vectors for gene therapy by carrying therapeutic DNA into cells.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 2 is also correct; nanoparticles serve as vectors for delivering therapeutic genes into target cells in gene therapy.

Option B

Statement 1 is also correct; nanocarriers deliver drugs specifically to diseased tissues, reducing side effects.

Option D

Both statements are factually correct applications of nanotechnology in medicine.

Q21Indian EconomyAgriculturePYQ 2015

Which one of the following is the best explanation of the Seed Village concept?

  • AA programme to train farmers in producing and maintaining quality seeds locallyCorrect
  • BA policy for shifting all villages to plantation crops only
  • CAn urban warehousing initiative for imported food items
  • DA social forestry programme unrelated to agriculture

Explanation

Correct. The Seed Village concept aims to encourage local production and timely availability of quality seeds through trained farmers.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

It is not about forcing monoculture plantations.

Option C

It is not an urban import warehousing programme.

Option D

The concept is directly tied to agricultural seed quality and availability.

Q22EnvironmentEcology BasicsPYQ 2015

Which one of the following is the best description of the term 'ecosystem'?

  • AA community of organisms interacting with one another
  • BThat part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
  • CA community of organisms together with the environment in which they liveCorrect
  • DThe flora and fauna of a geographical area

Explanation

Correct. An ecosystem comprises both the community of living organisms (biotic) and the physical environment (abiotic factors) they interact with.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This describes a biotic community but omits the abiotic environment, which is an essential component of an ecosystem.

Option B

This defines the biosphere, not an ecosystem. An ecosystem is a specific unit of biotic and abiotic interaction.

Option D

Flora and fauna describe the biological inventory of a region, not the functional interacting system that defines an ecosystem.

Q23Indian EconomyBasic Concepts of EconomicsPYQ 2015

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B2 onlyCorrect
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Correct. Nominal GDP at market prices (in rupees) generally shows a steady upward trend because it reflects both real economic growth and inflation. Even when real growth fluctuates, the combined effect of positive real growth and general price increases leads to a steady rise in nominal GDP.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Incorrect. Real GDP growth rates fluctuate significantly due to domestic and global factors such as economic crises, policy changes, and natural disasters. They do not show a steady increase over any decade.

Option C

Only Statement 2 is correct. Real GDP growth rate fluctuates year to year, while nominal GDP in rupees trends upward due to the compounding effect of inflation and real growth.

Option D

Statement 2 is correct since nominal GDP at market prices has indeed shown a steady increase over the decade.

Q24EnvironmentAgriculture, Biotechnology and EnvironmentPYQ 2015

What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture? 1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur. 2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place. 3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • A1 and 3 only
  • B2 only
  • C2 and 3 onlyCorrect
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. Ammonium-based fertilizers release hydrogen ions during nitrification, acidifying soil, and excess nitrate leaches into groundwater causing pollution.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 1 is incorrect; excess synthetic nitrogen actually suppresses biological nitrogen fixation because the microbes no longer have an adaptive advantage.

Option B

Statement 3 is also correct; surplus nitrate readily leaches through the soil profile into groundwater, causing contamination.

Option D

Statement 1 is wrong; external nitrogen supply reduces rather than promotes the proliferation of nitrogen-fixing organisms.

Q25History & CultureIndian Nationalism (1885-1919)PYQ 2015

Which one of the following movements contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of 'moderates' and 'extremists'?

  • ASwadeshi MovementCorrect
  • BQuit India Movement
  • CNon-Cooperation Movement
  • DCivil Disobedience Movement

Explanation

Correct. The Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908) sharpened differences over strategy and pace of agitation, culminating in the Surat split between moderates and extremists in 1907.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

The Quit India Movement (1942) occurred long after the moderate-extremist split and was led by a unified Congress under Gandhi.

Option C

The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) was launched after the moderates and extremists had already reunited at the Lucknow session of 1916.

Option D

The Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-34) took place much later and did not cause the moderate-extremist divide.

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