UPSC Prelims 2010 — solved PYQs

75 previous year questions from the 2010 UPSC Prelims paper, organised by subject — each solved with option-by-option explanations.

2010 PYQs by subject

Solved questions

A selection of 25 solved questions — sign up free to practise all 75.

Q1Indian EconomyExternal Sector & TradePYQ 2010

Which one of the following best explains why FDI from Mauritius historically occupied a large share of total FDI inflows into India?

  • AMauritius had a larger domestic market than India
  • BThe Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement made routing investment through Mauritius tax-efficient for many investorsCorrect
  • CIndia allowed FDI only from island economies
  • DMauritius is a major global crude oil producer

Explanation

Correct. The India-Mauritius tax treaty historically encouraged treaty-based routing of investments due to capital gains tax advantages.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The size of Mauritius' domestic market does not explain the route used by global investors into India.

Option C

India did not limit FDI sources only to island economies.

Option D

Crude oil production is unrelated to the treaty-shopping explanation for FDI routing.

Q2GeographyClimatology and Atmospheric CirculationPYQ 2010

What causes wind to deflect toward left in the Southern Hemisphere?

  • ATemperature
  • BMagnetic field
  • CRotation of the earthCorrect
  • DPressure

Explanation

Correct. The Coriolis effect, caused by Earth's rotation, deflects moving objects to the left in the Southern Hemisphere and to the right in the Northern Hemisphere.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Temperature differences create pressure gradients that initiate wind but do not cause the directional deflection of wind in a specific hemisphere.

Option B

Earth's magnetic field affects charged particles in the magnetosphere but has no significant effect on atmospheric wind deflection.

Option D

Pressure gradients determine wind speed and initial direction but do not cause the systematic leftward deflection seen in the Southern Hemisphere.

Q3History & CultureGandhian Era (1919-1939)PYQ 2010

With reference to the Simon Commission's recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?

  • AIt recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces.Correct
  • BIt proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department.
  • CIt suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre.
  • DIt recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits.

Explanation

Correct. The Simon Commission recommended ending diarchy in the provinces and moving toward provincial autonomy with responsible government.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

The Simon Commission did not propose an inter-provincial council under the Home Department in this specific form.

Option C

The Simon Commission did not suggest abolishing the bicameral legislature at the Centre.

Option D

While the police system was discussed, the Commission did not recommend creating a new Indian Police Service with discriminatory pay in this manner.

Q4GeographyRegional Geography of IndiaPYQ 2010

The approximate representations of land use classification in India is: [2010]

  • ANet area sown 25%; forests 33%; other areas 42%
  • BNet area sown 58%; forests 17%; other areas 25%
  • CNet area sown 43%; forests 29%; other areas 28%
  • DNet area sown 47%; forests 23%; other areas 30%Correct

Explanation

Correct. Approximately 47% of India's total geographical area is net sown area, about 23% is under forests, and the remaining 30% covers other categories including fallow land, barren land, and land under non-agricultural use.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This significantly underestimates the net sown area and overestimates the forest cover of India.

Option B

This greatly overestimates the net sown area and underestimates forest cover.

Option C

This overestimates both net sown area and forest cover compared to actual figures.

Q5ScienceDisease, Immunity and Public HealthPYQ 2010

Widespread resistance of malarial parasites to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malaria vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine?

  • AMalaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium.Correct
  • BMan does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection.
  • CVaccines can be developed only against bacteria.
  • DMan is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host.

Explanation

Correct. Multiple Plasmodium species (P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. malariae, P. ovale) with antigenic variation make it extremely difficult to design a single effective vaccine.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Humans do develop partial immunity after repeated exposure in endemic areas, so this statement is incorrect.

Option C

Vaccines have been developed against viruses, parasites, and fungi as well, not just bacteria.

Option D

While the mosquito is the definitive host, the difficulty in vaccine development relates to antigenic diversity, not host classification.

Q6GeographyIndian Resources and AgriculturePYQ 2010

When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour?

  • AAbundance of magnesium
  • BAccumulated humus
  • CPresence of ferric oxidesCorrect
  • DAbundance of phosphates

Explanation

Correct. Red soil gets its distinctive colour from the presence of ferric oxides (iron oxide/Fe₂O₃) formed by the weathering of iron-rich crystalline and metamorphic rocks under warm, humid conditions.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Magnesium does not impart a red colour to soil.

Option B

Accumulated humus makes soil dark brown or black, not red.

Option D

Phosphates do not cause the red colouration of soil.

Q7History & CultureIndian Nationalism (1885-1919)PYQ 2010

Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention or of rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of the following was not one of those resolutions?

  • AAnnulment of partition of BengalCorrect
  • BBoycott
  • CNational education
  • DSwadeshi

Explanation

Correct. The Calcutta session of 1906 adopted resolutions on swadeshi, boycott, national education and self-government. Annulment of Bengal partition was a central political demand but was not one of the four formal resolutions that became the flashpoint at Surat.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Boycott was one of the four resolutions passed at the 1906 Calcutta session under Dadabhai Naoroji's presidency.

Option C

National education was one of the four resolutions adopted at the 1906 Calcutta session.

Option D

Swadeshi was one of the four resolutions passed at the 1906 Calcutta session.

Q8ScienceDisease, Immunity and Public HealthPYQ 2010

With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which one of the following statements is not correct?

  • AThe chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to female.Correct
  • BThe chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually transmitted infections.
  • CAn infected mother can transmit the infection during pregnancy, at childbirth and by breastfeeding.
  • DThe risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much higher than an exposure to contaminated needle.

Explanation

Correct (not correct statement). Epidemiological data shows that male-to-female transmission is actually more likely due to greater mucosal exposure, not the reverse.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

This is correct; co-infection with STIs like syphilis or herpes increases HIV transmission risk due to genital ulcers and inflammation.

Option C

This is correct; vertical transmission can occur in utero, during delivery, or through breast milk.

Option D

This is correct; transfusion of infected blood carries over 90% transmission risk, far higher than needlestick exposure (~0.3%).

Q9Indian EconomyFinancial MarketsPYQ 2010

A 'bear' in the financial market denotes:

  • AAn investor who believes that the price of a security will fallCorrect
  • BAn investor who expects the share price to rise indefinitely
  • CA shareholder who holds bonds as collateral against loans
  • DA government agency that manages debt redemption

Explanation

Correct. A bear is a market participant who expects prices to decline and may sell securities in anticipation.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

This is incorrect because an investor expecting prices to rise is called a 'bull', not a bear.

Option C

This is incorrect because holding bonds as collateral describes a lending arrangement, not a bear.

Option D

This is incorrect because debt redemption management is a government treasury function unrelated to the bear concept.

Q10History & CultureGandhian Era (1919-1939)PYQ 2010

For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931, presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?

  • AMahatma Gandhi
  • BPandit Jawaharlal NehruCorrect
  • CDr. Rajendra Prasad
  • DDr. B. R. Ambedkar

Explanation

Correct. Jawaharlal Nehru drafted the Karachi Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme. It became a key bridge between nationalism and a rights-based constitutional vision.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Gandhi was the guiding force of the Congress, but the drafting of the Karachi Resolution on Fundamental Rights was Nehru's work.

Option C

Rajendra Prasad was a senior Congress leader but did not draft this particular resolution.

Option D

Ambedkar was not part of the Congress at this time. He was engaged in his own movement for Depressed Classes' rights.

Q11Polity & GovernanceJudiciaryPYQ 2010

With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?

  • ALok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigation stage and not those matters pending before any court
  • BLok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
  • CEvery Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
  • DNone of the statements given above is correctCorrect

Explanation

Correct. All three substantive statements are incorrect. Lok Adalats handle both pre-litigation and pending cases, can deal with compoundable criminal matters, and can include non-judicial members.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Incorrect. Lok Adalats can take up both pre-litigation matters and cases already pending before courts. Their jurisdiction is not limited to one stage.

Option B

Incorrect. Lok Adalats may handle compoundable criminal matters in addition to civil matters under the Legal Services Authorities Act.

Option C

Incorrect. Lok Adalats can include non-judicial conciliators as members, not just serving or retired judicial officers.

Q12ScienceGeneral Science Mixed ConceptsPYQ 2010

From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?

  • AOtter — Tortoise — Shark
  • BShark — Tortoise — OtterCorrect
  • CTortoise — Shark — Otter
  • DShark — Otter — Tortoise

Explanation

Correct. Fish (shark) evolved first, followed by reptiles (tortoise), and then mammals (otter) — matching the progression of vertebrate evolution.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This reverses the evolutionary sequence; fish evolved before reptiles, which evolved before mammals.

Option C

Sharks (cartilaginous fish) appeared in the fossil record before reptiles like tortoises.

Option D

Mammals evolved after reptiles, not before them.

Q13History & CultureAdvent of Europeans and Company RulePYQ 2010

Who among the following Governor Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?

  • AWarren Hastings
  • BWellesley
  • CCornwallisCorrect
  • DWilliam Bentinck

Explanation

Correct. Lord Cornwallis reformed the Company's administration by creating the Covenanted Civil Service, separating commercial and administrative functions and establishing a professional cadre of well-paid European civil servants.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Warren Hastings initiated some administrative reforms but did not create the formal Covenanted Civil Service structure.

Option B

Lord Wellesley established Fort William College for training civil servants but the institutional framework of the Covenanted Civil Service was created by Cornwallis.

Option D

William Bentinck is known for social reforms but did not create the Covenanted Civil Service.

Q14History & CultureAdvent of Europeans and Company RulePYQ 2010

With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements: 1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese. 2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French. 3. The English never occupied Pondicherry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 onlyCorrect
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. Only statement 1 is accurate. The Portuguese were the first Europeans at Pondicherry. Statement 2 is debatable as the Danish and Dutch also had presence, and statement 3 is incorrect as the English captured Pondicherry multiple times during the Carnatic Wars.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Statement 3 is incorrect. The English did occupy Pondicherry during the Anglo-French conflicts in the eighteenth century.

Option C

Statement 3 is incorrect as the English captured Pondicherry multiple times.

Option D

Statements 2 and 3 are not fully correct. The English occupied Pondicherry several times during the Carnatic Wars.

Q15Indian EconomyFiscal Policy & BudgetingPYQ 2010

Fiscal stimulus, in general, includes: 1. Cutting taxes 2. Increasing government expenditure 3. Abolishing all subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A1 and 2 onlyCorrect
  • B2 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. Fiscal stimulus works by boosting aggregate demand through measures such as tax cuts and higher government spending. Abolishing all subsidies is neither necessary nor inherently expansionary.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

This is incorrect because tax cuts are also a standard tool of fiscal stimulus.

Option C

This is incorrect because abolishing all subsidies is not a defining feature of stimulus, while higher public spending is.

Option D

This is incorrect because Statement 3 is not an inherent component of fiscal stimulus.

Q16Polity & GovernanceJudiciaryPYQ 2010

Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact. 1. On its own initiative on any matter of larger public interest 2. If he seeks such an advice 3. Only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B2 onlyCorrect
  • C3 only
  • D1 and 2

Explanation

Correct. Under Article 143, the Supreme Court gives advisory opinions only when the President makes a reference. The Court has no suo motu advisory power, and the reference is not confined to Fundamental Rights issues.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The Supreme Court cannot tender advisory opinions on its own initiative. Article 143 requires a presidential reference before the Court can give its opinion.

Option C

The advisory jurisdiction is not confined to Fundamental Rights issues. The President can refer any question of law or fact of sufficient public importance under Article 143.

Option D

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court does not initiate the advisory process; it responds only to a presidential reference.

Q17EnvironmentEcology BasicsPYQ 2010

Some species of plants are insectivorous. Why?

  • ATheir growth in shady and dark places does not allow them to undertake sufficient photosynthesis and thus they depend on insects for nutrition
  • BThey are adapted to grow in nitrogen-deficient soils and thus depend on insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutritionCorrect
  • CThey cannot synthesize certain vitamins themselves and depend on the insects digested by them
  • DThey have remained in that particular stage of evolution as living fossils, a link between autotrophs and heterotrophs

Explanation

Correct. Insectivorous plants typically grow in nitrogen-poor, acidic, or waterlogged soils. They trap and digest insects to supplement their nitrogen requirements.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Insectivorous plants like sundews and pitcher plants grow in open, sunlit bogs and can photosynthesize normally; light is not their constraint.

Option C

These plants photosynthesize and produce vitamins; they specifically trap insects to obtain nitrogen and other minerals scarce in their soil.

Option D

Insectivory is an evolved adaptation to nutrient-poor environments, not a transitional evolutionary stage between autotrophs and heterotrophs.

Q18EnvironmentBiodiversityPYQ 2010

King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make its nest?

  • AIt is a snake-eater and the nest helps attract other snakes
  • BIt is a viviparous snake and needs a nest to give birth to its offspring
  • CIt is an oviparous snake and lays its eggs in the nest and guards the nest until they are hatchedCorrect
  • DIt is a large, cold-blooded animal and needs a nest to hibernate in the cold season

Explanation

Correct. The King Cobra (Ophiophagus hannah) is oviparous and is the only snake species known to build a nest from leaf litter. The female deposits her eggs inside and guards the nest for the entire incubation period of about 60-90 days.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

While King Cobras are ophiophagous (snake-eaters), the nest is not built to attract prey. It is constructed specifically for egg incubation and protection.

Option B

King Cobras are oviparous (egg-laying), not viviparous. They lay 20-40 eggs in their nest and the female guards them throughout incubation.

Option D

Snakes do not build nests for hibernation. The King Cobra's nest is exclusively for egg-laying and incubation. Snakes typically brumate in existing crevices or burrows.

Q19Indian EconomyInflation & Price IndicesPYQ 2010

Deflation means:

  • AA persistent fall in the general price levelCorrect
  • BA fall in the rate of inflation while prices still rise
  • CDepreciation of the domestic currency
  • DA recession in the financial sector only

Explanation

Correct. Deflation is a sustained decline in the overall price level.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

This is incorrect because That is disinflation, not deflation.

Option C

This is incorrect because Currency depreciation is a foreign-exchange concept.

Option D

This is incorrect because Deflation is a price-level concept, not a sector-specific slowdown.

Q20Indian EconomyPublic Finance & TaxationPYQ 2010

Which of the following was NOT stipulated in the original FRBM Act, 2003?

  • AElimination of revenue deficit by a target year
  • BRestriction on borrowing from RBI except under specified conditions
  • CElimination of primary deficit by a target yearCorrect
  • DLaying of fiscal policy statements before Parliament

Explanation

Correct. The original FRBM law did not stipulate elimination of primary deficit by a target year.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Revenue deficit reduction was explicitly part of the FRBM framework.

Option B

Restrictions on monetized deficit and RBI borrowing were part of the reform logic.

Option D

The Act required the government to place policy statements such as the Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement before Parliament.

Q21History & CultureGandhian Era (1919-1939)PYQ 2010

Consider the following statements: 1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants. 2. Acharya J. B. Kripalani was one of Mahatma Gandhi's colleagues in his Champaran investigation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B2 onlyCorrect
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Correct. Gandhi came to Champaran after repeated requests from Raj Kumar Shukla, not Rajendra Prasad. J. B. Kripalani did assist Gandhi in the Champaran campaign, so only the second statement is correct.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 1 is incorrect. It was Raj Kumar Shukla, not Rajendra Prasad, who persistently persuaded Gandhi to visit Champaran.

Option C

Statement 1 is incorrect. Raj Kumar Shukla, a local peasant leader, invited Gandhi to Champaran.

Option D

Statement 2 is correct. J. B. Kripalani was indeed one of Gandhi's associates during the Champaran inquiry.

Q22GeographyClimatology and Atmospheric CirculationPYQ 2010

A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics: 1. Warm and dry climate 2. Mild and wet winter 3. Evergreen oak trees The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions?

  • AMediterraneanCorrect
  • BEastern China
  • CCentral Asia
  • DAtlantic coast of North America

Explanation

Correct. Hot dry summers, mild wet winters, and evergreen vegetation adapted to drought (like holm oak and cork oak) are hallmarks of the Mediterranean climate region.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Eastern China has a humid subtropical or monsoon climate with hot, wet summers and cool, drier winters — the opposite seasonal rainfall pattern.

Option C

Central Asia has a continental climate with extreme temperature ranges and low precipitation. It does not have mild wet winters.

Option D

The Atlantic coast of North America has a humid continental or humid subtropical climate with precipitation distributed throughout the year.

Q23GeographyPhysiography of IndiaPYQ 2010

Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for considering the Gondwana rocks as most important of rock systems of India?

  • AMore than 90% of limestone reserves of India are found in them
  • BMore than 90% of India's coal reserves are found in themCorrect
  • CMore than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are spread over them
  • DNone of the reasons given above is appropriate in this context

Explanation

Correct. The Gondwana rock system is of paramount economic importance because it contains over 90% of India's coal reserves, found in basins across Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Major limestone deposits in India are associated with the Vindhyan and Cuddapah systems, not Gondwana formations.

Option C

Black cotton soils (regur) are derived from the Deccan Trap basalts, not from Gondwana sedimentary formations.

Option D

Option (b) is the correct reason. Gondwana coal deposits account for the overwhelming majority of India's coal reserves.

Q24Polity & GovernanceConstitutional BodiesPYQ 2010

Who among the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?

  • AThe President of IndiaCorrect
  • BThe Speaker of Lok Sabha
  • CThe Prime Minister of India
  • DThe Union Finance Minister

Explanation

Correct. Article 281 mandates that the President shall cause every recommendation of the Finance Commission, together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon, to be laid before each House of Parliament.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

The Speaker presides over Lok Sabha proceedings but does not have the constitutional duty to lay Finance Commission recommendations before Parliament.

Option C

The Prime Minister heads the government but the specific constitutional duty under Article 281 rests with the President.

Option D

While the Finance Minister is involved in fiscal policy, Article 281 places the obligation to lay Finance Commission recommendations before Parliament on the President, not the Finance Minister.

Q25EnvironmentInternational Environmental ConventionsPYQ 2010

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at:

  • AUnited Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972
  • BUN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992Correct
  • CWorld Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002
  • DUN Climate Change Conference, Copenhagen, 2009

Explanation

Correct. The UNFCCC was opened for signature at the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro and entered into force in 1994.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The 1972 Stockholm Conference addressed the human environment broadly but predates the UNFCCC by two decades.

Option C

The 2002 Johannesburg Summit reviewed progress on sustainable development but did not originate the UNFCCC.

Option D

Copenhagen 2009 was COP15 under the already existing UNFCCC framework, not its origin.

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