A selection of 25 solved questions — sign up free to practise all 93.
Q1Science·Cell Biology and GeneticsPYQ 2019
Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2
- B2 and 3 onlyCorrect
- C1, 3 and 4
- D2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Correct. Incorrect antibiotic dosing creates selective pressure favouring resistant strains, and widespread antibiotic use in livestock farming accelerates resistance gene spread in microbial populations.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Genetic predisposition of humans does not cause multi-drug resistance in microbes; resistance arises from selective pressure due to antibiotic misuse.
- Option C
Neither genetic predisposition nor chronic diseases in humans directly cause drug resistance in microbes.
- Option D
Chronic diseases in patients do not cause microbial drug resistance; resistance is driven by antibiotic misuse and overuse.
Q2Polity & Governance·JudiciaryPYQ 2019
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court has jurisdiction to declare any Central law constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2Correct
Explanation
Correct. High Courts can review the constitutional validity of Central laws within their jurisdiction under Article 226, and constitutional amendments are subject to judicial review on the basic-structure test.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is false. High Courts possess the power of judicial review under Article 226 and can declare Central laws unconstitutional within their jurisdiction.
- Option B
Statement 2 is also false. Constitutional amendments are subject to judicial review on the basic-structure test as established in Kesavananda Bharati.
- Option C
Both statements are incorrect. High Courts can review Central laws and the Supreme Court can review constitutional amendments.
Q3Indian Economy·Banking SystemPYQ 2019
With reference to the RBI's data localization norms for payment systems, consider the following statements:
1. All payment system operators must store the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them only in India.
2. Only payment systems owned by public sector enterprises are covered under this requirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 onlyCorrect
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. RBI mandated that all payment system data must be stored exclusively in India, but the requirement applies to all payment system operators, not only public sector ones.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
This is incorrect because Statement 2 is wrong as the data localization requirement covers all payment system operators, not just public sector entities.
- Option C
This is incorrect because Statement 2 is wrong; the requirement is universal across all payment operators.
- Option D
This is incorrect because Statement 1 is correct as RBI requires complete domestic storage of payment system data.
Q4History & Culture·Socio-Religious Reform MovementsPYQ 2019
Consider the following pairs:
Movement or Organization : Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League : Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha : Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement : Naicker E.V. Ramaswami
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- A1 only
- B1 and 2 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3Correct
Explanation
Correct. All three pairs are correctly matched: Gandhi founded the Anti-Untouchability League in 1932, Swami Sahajanand Saraswati founded the All India Kisan Sabha in 1936, and E.V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar) launched the Self-Respect Movement in 1925.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
While Pair 1 is correct, Pairs 2 and 3 are also correctly matched, making this answer incomplete.
- Option B
While Pairs 1 and 2 are correct, Pair 3 is also correct. Periyar E.V. Ramaswami did found the Self-Respect Movement.
- Option C
While Pairs 2 and 3 are correct, Pair 1 is also correct. Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League (later Harijan Sevak Sangh) in 1932.
Q5Environment·BiodiversityPYQ 2019
Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 onlyCorrect
- B2 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. The Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica) survives in the wild only in the Gir Forest of Gujarat, India. The double-humped Bactrian camel is native to Central Asia (Mongolia, China), and the one-horned rhinoceros is also found in Nepal.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
The Bactrian (double-humped) camel is native to the steppes of Central Asia, particularly Mongolia and China, not India.
- Option C
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Indian one-horned rhinoceros is also found in Nepal, particularly in Chitwan National Park.
- Option D
Only statement 1 is correct. The double-humped camel is Central Asian and the one-horned rhino also occurs in Nepal.
Q6Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2019
Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell bamboos grown in forest areas.
2. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 onlyCorrect
- C3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 includes bamboo in the definition of minor forest produce, and the Act recognizes the right of forest-dwelling communities to own, collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce, including bamboo.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Indian Forest Act amendment of 2017 removed bamboo grown in non-forest areas from the definition of 'tree', but did not grant a general right to fell bamboo in forest areas.
- Option C
While Statement 3 is correct, Statement 2 is also correct. Bamboo is explicitly included as a minor forest produce under the FRA.
- Option D
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 2017 amendment to the Indian Forest Act facilitated bamboo cultivation on non-forest land, not the felling of bamboo in forest areas.
Q7Indian Economy·Money & Capital MarketsPYQ 2019
Consider the following statements about Indian Government Bond Yields:
1. They are influenced by the actions of the US Federal Reserve.
2. They are influenced by the actions of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. They are influenced by inflation and short-term interest rates.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 only
- C3 only
- D1, 2 and 3Correct
Explanation
Correct. Indian government bond yields are influenced by global factors such as US Fed policy, domestic monetary policy actions by the RBI, and prevailing inflation and interest rate conditions.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 3 is also correct because inflation expectations and short-term rate movements directly influence bond yields.
- Option B
While the RBI's actions are important, US Fed actions and domestic inflation also play significant roles in influencing Indian bond yields.
- Option C
Inflation and short-term rates matter, but the RBI and the US Federal Reserve also have a material impact on Indian government bond yields.
Q8History & Culture·Mauryas and Post-Mauryan IndiaPYQ 2019
In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
- AKanganahalliCorrect
- BSanchi
- CShahbazgarhi
- DSohgaura
Explanation
Correct. The Buddhist site of Kanganahalli in Karnataka's Kalaburagi district yielded a unique sculptural panel with the Prakrit inscription 'Ranyo Ashoka' alongside a carved portrait of the emperor, the only known contemporaneous portrait of Ashoka.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh is famous for its stupas and gateways with Buddhist narrative reliefs, but it does not contain a portrait inscription naming Ashoka as 'Ranyo Ashoka'.
- Option C
Shahbazgarhi in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa (Pakistan) is the site of Ashokan rock edicts written in Kharoshthi script, but it has no sculptural portrait of Ashoka.
- Option D
Sohgaura in Uttar Pradesh is known for a copper-plate inscription from the Mauryan period dealing with famine relief, not for any portrait of Ashoka.
Q9Environment·Environmental PollutionPYQ 2019
Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into the environment?
- AThey arebelieved to betoxic to marine organismsCorrect
- BThey arebelieved to causeskin cancer in children
- CThey aresmall enough to beabsorbed by crop plants and enter the food chain
- DThey areoftenfound to blocktheintestines offarm animals
Explanation
Correct. Microbeads are tiny plastic particles from personal care products that enter waterways, are ingested by marine organisms, and carry adsorbed toxins up the food chain, making them toxic to marine ecosystems.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
The primary concern with microbeads is aquatic and marine ecosystem contamination, not direct skin cancer in children.
- Option C
While microplastic contamination of soils is a concern, the primary worry about microbeads is their impact on aquatic organisms that ingest them.
- Option D
The main environmental concern is marine pollution and bioaccumulation in aquatic food chains, not intestinal blockage in farm animals.
Q10Indian Economy·AgriculturePYQ 2019
What is the most appropriate objective of land ceiling laws in post-independence India?
- ATo increase concentration of agricultural land in a few hands
- BTo impose an upper limit on landholdings and redistribute surplus land to the landless or marginal farmersCorrect
- CTo prohibit all tenancy arrangements forever
- DTo replace land records with only oral customary evidence
Explanation
Correct. Ceiling laws aimed at equity by limiting very large holdings and redistributing declared surplus land.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Land ceiling laws were intended to reduce excessive concentration, not increase it.
- Option C
Tenancy reform is a separate but related issue; ceiling laws are not merely a total tenancy ban.
- Option D
Modern land reform seeks clearer and better records, not only oral evidence.
Q11Indian Economy·Monetary Policy & BankingPYQ 2019
Which one of the following is least likely to prevent rupee depreciation?
- AAttracting capital inflows
- BPursuing expansionary monetary policy amid inflation pressureCorrect
- CMaintaining adequate foreign exchange reserves
- DImproving export earnings
Explanation
Correct. Expansionary monetary policy can weaken interest-rate support for the currency and aggravate depreciation pressure.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Capital inflows add foreign exchange supply and can help support the rupee.
- Option C
Adequate reserves help the central bank manage disorderly exchange-rate movements.
- Option D
Higher export earnings improve foreign exchange inflows and can support the rupee.
Q12Science·Computers, ICT and Emerging TechPYQ 2019
With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2Correct
Explanation
Correct. LTE is a 4G (not 3G) standard, and VoLTE enables voice calls over the LTE data network rather than being voice-only. Both statements are incorrect.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
LTE is marketed as 4G, not 3G, making statement 1 incorrect.
- Option B
VoLTE carries both voice and data over the LTE network, not just voice. Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Option C
Both statements are factually wrong. LTE is a 4G technology and VoLTE enables voice calls over the 4G LTE data network.
Q13History & Culture·Guptas and Classical IndiaPYQ 2019
With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
- AIt was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.Correct
- BIt was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
- CThe forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
- DThe eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Explanation
Correct. Vishti was a form of compulsory unpaid labour that the state could demand from subjects. Gupta inscriptions mention it alongside other revenue obligations, treating it as a form of tax paid through labour rather than money or produce.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
There is no historical evidence to suggest that Vishti was absent in any specific region of the Gupta Empire. Gupta copper plate inscriptions from various regions mention Vishti as a standard obligation.
- Option C
Vishti by definition was forced and unpaid labour. The concept of weekly wages is a modern labour concept that did not apply to this ancient system of compulsory service.
- Option D
There was no specific rule mandating the eldest son to serve as forced labourer. Vishti was a general obligation on the household or community as a whole, not restricted to any particular family member.
Q14Polity & Governance·JudiciaryPYQ 2019
Consider the following statements:
1. A motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of Supreme Court judges.
3. Details of the impeachment process are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion is taken up for voting, it must be supported in each House by a majority of the total membership and by not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 2
- B3 only
- C3 and 4 onlyCorrect
- D1, 3 and 4
Explanation
Correct. Statement 3 is correct because the statutory procedure is laid down in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, and Statement 4 correctly states the special majority requirement under Article 124(4).
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Speaker or Chairman may admit or refuse a motion at the threshold. Statement 2 is also incorrect because the Constitution does not define the phrase in detail.
- Option B
While Statement 3 is correct, Statement 4 is also correct regarding the special majority requirement for removal of judges.
- Option D
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Speaker or Chairman can refuse to admit the motion at the threshold stage under the procedural framework.
Q15Polity & Governance·Political Theory and Comparative ConceptsPYQ 2019
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
- AProtection against the tyranny of political rulers
- BAbsence of restraint
- COpportunity to do whatever one likes
- DOpportunity to develop oneself fullyCorrect
Explanation
Correct. Liberty in constitutional and political theory is best understood as the condition in which individuals can fully develop their personality and potential within a framework of just laws. This reflects the positive conception of liberty.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Protection against tyranny is one aspect of liberty but does not encompass its full meaning in modern political theory, which includes positive dimensions of self-development.
- Option B
Absence of restraint is the negative conception of liberty, but constitutional theory recognizes that complete absence of restraint leads to anarchy, not meaningful freedom.
- Option C
Unlimited freedom to do anything one likes is license, not liberty. Liberty operates within a framework of law and mutual respect for others' rights.
Q16Indian Economy·International Economic OrganizationsPYQ 2019
The 'Global Competitiveness Report' is published by:
- AInternational Monetary Fund
- BUnited Nations Conference on Trade and Development
- CWorld Economic ForumCorrect
- DWorld Bank
Explanation
Correct. The World Economic Forum publishes the Global Competitiveness Report, which benchmarks national competitiveness across various indicators.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
The IMF publishes the World Economic Outlook and Global Financial Stability Report, not the Global Competitiveness Report.
- Option B
UNCTAD publishes the Trade and Development Report and World Investment Report.
- Option D
The World Bank publishes the World Development Report and Global Economic Prospects.
Q17Indian Economy·External Sector & TradePYQ 2019
With reference to India's external debt, consider the following statements:
1. Most of India's external debt is owed by government entities.
2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2Correct
Explanation
Correct. Private sector borrowing forms a substantial share of external debt, and it is denominated in various currencies, not exclusively US dollars.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. A significant portion of India's external debt is owed by private sector entities such as corporates through external commercial borrowings, not just the government.
- Option B
Incorrect. India's external debt is denominated in multiple currencies including US dollars, Japanese yen, SDRs, and euros, not solely in dollars.
- Option C
Both statements are factually incorrect based on India's external debt profile.
Q18Geography·Indian Resources and AgriculturePYQ 2019
Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
- AChina
- BIndiaCorrect
- CMyanmar
- DVietnam
Explanation
Correct. India has been the world's largest exporter of rice, accounting for about 25-40% of global rice exports in recent years, surpassing Thailand and Vietnam.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
China is the world's largest producer of rice but is a net importer, not a major exporter.
- Option C
Myanmar is a significant rice exporter but ranks well below India in export volume.
- Option D
Vietnam is a major rice exporter but India has consistently exported more rice by volume in recent years.
Q19Geography·Earth Structure and GeomorphologyPYQ 2019
The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to:
- AFossils of a kind of dinosaurs
- BAn early human speciesCorrect
- CA cave system found in North-East India
- DA geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Explanation
Correct. Denisovans are an extinct species or subspecies of archaic humans identified from DNA extracted from a finger bone found in Denisova Cave, Siberia. They interbred with both Neanderthals and modern humans.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Denisovans are not dinosaurs. They were a group of archaic humans who lived alongside Homo sapiens and Neanderthals during the Pleistocene epoch.
- Option C
The name derives from Denisova Cave in the Altai Mountains of Siberia, Russia — not from a cave system in North-East India.
- Option D
Denisovan refers to a hominin species, not a geological time period. The name comes from the Denisova Cave where their remains were first discovered.
Q20Science·Space Science and AstronomyPYQ 2019
Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant black holes billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
- A'Higgs boson particles' were detected
- B'Gravitational waves' were detectedCorrect
- CPossibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed
- DIt enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'
Explanation
Correct. The LIGO and Virgo observatories detected gravitational waves produced by the merger of black holes, confirming a key prediction of Einstein's general theory of relativity.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
The Higgs boson was detected at CERN using particle accelerators, not through astronomical observations of black hole mergers.
- Option C
No wormhole was confirmed; the observation detected gravitational wave signals from the merger event.
- Option D
While black holes contain singularities, the observation's primary significance was the direct detection of gravitational waves.
Q21Indian Economy·Money & Capital MarketsPYQ 2019
Consider the following statements:
1. Retail investors through a demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government Debt Bonds in the primary market.
2. The Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching (NDS-OM) is a government securities trading platform of the RBI.
3. The Central Depository Services Limited (CDSL) is jointly promoted by the RBI and BSE.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A1 only
- B1 and 2 onlyCorrect
- C3 only
- D2 and 3 only
Explanation
Correct. Retail investors can participate in T-bill and G-Sec auctions through their demat accounts, and the NDS-OM is the RBI's order-matching platform for government securities. CDSL was promoted by BSE along with certain banks, not by the RBI.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 2 is also correct because NDS-OM is indeed the RBI's electronic platform for secondary market trading of government securities.
- Option C
Statement 3 is incorrect because CDSL is not jointly promoted by the RBI. Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
- Option D
Statement 1 is also correct. Retail investors can invest in government securities through demat accounts.
Q22Environment·Climate Change SciencePYQ 2019
Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 3 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C2 only
- D1, 2 and 3Correct
Explanation
Correct. Agricultural soils emit NOₓ through microbial nitrification-denitrification, cattle emit ammonia from urine and manure, and poultry operations release ammonia and other reactive nitrogen compounds.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 2 is also correct — cattle excreta and enteric processes release significant amounts of ammonia.
- Option B
Statement 1 is also correct — nitrification and denitrification in agricultural soils produce nitrous oxide and other nitrogen oxides.
- Option C
All three statements are correct, not just statement 2.
Q23Indian Economy·External Sector & TradePYQ 2019
Which of the following is NOT a likely measure to stop the slide of the Indian rupee?
- ACurbing non-essential imports and promoting exports
- BEncouraging the issuance of Masala bonds
- CEasing conditions for external commercial borrowings
- DFollowing an expansionary monetary policyCorrect
Explanation
Correct. Expansionary monetary policy involves lowering interest rates and increasing money supply, which typically weakens the currency rather than supporting it.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Curbing imports and promoting exports strengthens the current account and supports the rupee.
- Option B
Masala bonds are rupee-denominated bonds issued overseas. They attract foreign capital without exchange rate risk to the issuer and support the rupee.
- Option C
Easing ECB conditions encourages dollar inflows which can support the rupee in the short term.
Q24Indian Economy·AgriculturePYQ 2019
India is the largest exporter of which of the following agricultural commodities globally?
- ASoybean
- BRiceCorrect
- CWheat
- DMaize
Explanation
Correct. India has been the largest exporter of rice in the world in recent years.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Brazil, USA and Argentina dominate global soybean exports, not India.
- Option C
Russia, EU and other countries are typically larger wheat exporters than India.
- Option D
USA, Brazil and Argentina dominate global maize exports.
Q25Science·Disease, Immunity and Public HealthPYQ 2019
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- AHepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
- BHepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.Correct
- CGlobally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
- DSome of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Explanation
Correct (not correct statement). Hepatitis B does have a highly effective vaccine; it is Hepatitis C that currently lacks a vaccine.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
This is correct; both Hepatitis B and HIV spread through blood, sexual contact, and mother-to-child transmission.
- Option C
This is correct; WHO estimates roughly 350 million chronic HBV and 70 million HCV carriers versus about 38 million living with HIV.
- Option D
This is correct; both infections can remain asymptomatic for years or decades before liver damage becomes apparent.