A selection of 25 solved questions — sign up free to practise all 258.
Q1Environment·Conservation Programmes and MissionsPYQ 2026
Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?
1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- A1 onlyCorrect
- B1 and 2
- C2 and 3
- D3 only
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Statement 1 is sound, but statement 2 reverses the role of technology. A tracking device reports a bird’s location to researchers; it is not a guidance system teaching the bird its migratory route.
- Option C
Neither of these claims follows from annual arrivals. Tracking observes migration, and a seasonal stopover is evidence of continuing movement between regions rather than permanent residency.
- Option D
Amur falcons continue their migration toward southern Africa after resting and feeding in Northeast India. Repeated seasonal use of Doyang therefore does not show year-round residence in India.
Q2Environment·Conservation Programmes and MissionsPYQ 2026
Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?
- AUttarakhand REDD+ project
- BICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
- CKhasi Hills Community REDD+ projectCorrect
- DSikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project
Explanation
UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 40. The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project is the answer. Plan Vivo identifies it as India’s first community-based REDD+ programme and records avoided deforestation and assisted natural regeneration activities in Meghalaya. Its community institutions combine forest protection with livelihood support and carbon finance.
Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · Plan Vivo: Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project, India
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
The Uttarakhand option is not the project identified by Plan Vivo’s certification record. The relevant early community REDD+ programme is in Meghalaya’s Khasi Hills, where carbon finance supports forest conservation and regeneration.
- Option B
This distractor describes a broader Himalayan collaboration rather than the named Plan Vivo-certified project. The certification and project record identify the Khasi Hills community programme, not an ICFRE–ICIMOD transboundary initiative.
- Option D
The requested distinction belongs to the Khasi Hills project in Meghalaya. A community or REDD+ label by itself does not establish that a project was the first certified under a specific standard; the certifier’s project record is decisive.
Q3Environment·Forests, Wetlands and Coastal EcologyPYQ 2026
Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?
1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- A1 only
- B1 and 2
- C2 and 3
- D3 onlyCorrect
Explanation
UPSC provisional key: (D), Series A question 23. Mangroves buffer waves, storm surges and coastal erosion while supporting fisheries and other community resources. Those combined protective and livelihood functions explain statement 3. Their salt-tolerant adaptations do not imply that surrounding saline soils and waters become freshwater agricultural sites, so statements 1 and 2 are unsuitable reasons for protection.
Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · UNEP — Mangrove forests · UNEP — Mangroves as storm protection and fish habitat
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Mangroves can dissipate wave and tidal energy, but that does not make saline mangrove belts freshwater stores ideal for paddy. A true protective function is attached here to an unjustified land-conversion claim.
- Option B
Both selected statements confuse mangrove adaptations with changing the whole coastal habitat into freshwater farmland or aquaculture. Mangroves live in saline or brackish conditions; protecting them is not equivalent to clearing them for freshwater production.
- Option C
Statement 3 correctly links protection and livelihoods, but statement 2 describes the roots as salt-sensitive and treats filtration as ecosystem-scale desalination. Salt regulation by a plant does not convert the estuary into a freshwater aquaculture zone.
Q4Environment·Protected Areas and Conservation FrameworksPYQ 2026
With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- A1 only
- B1 and 2Correct
- C2 and 3
- D3 only
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
The 2025 Tiger Reserve designation is correct, but Sakhya Sagar is also a Ramsar wetland inside Madhav National Park. Selecting only the designation overlooks the second independently correct fact.
- Option C
The Ramsar-site statement is correct, but the cross-state claim is not. A wildlife corridor linking different reserves across a region is different from a single park extending across a state boundary.
- Option D
The sole selected statement is false: Madhav is located in Madhya Pradesh. Its northern Central Indian landscape and connections toward Rajasthan should not be confused with joint state jurisdiction.
Q5Environment·Climate Change SciencePYQ 2026
Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change:
I. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
II. India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.
III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?
1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- A1 only
- B1 and 2Correct
- C2 and 3
- D3 only
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
The provisional key treats the BUR figure as empirical support for India’s low-emission direction, but relationship 2 is also selected. The exclusionary short-term claim in statementIII is inconsistent with the broader long-term development approach.
- Option C
Relationship 2 captures the problem with reducing resilience to short-term target achievement. Relationship 3 does not follow, because a narrow necessary-condition claim about quick reductions does not jointly establish a sound long-term sustainability premise.
- Option D
Relationship 3 is not the accepted inference. Long-term sustainability involves sustained mitigation, adaptation and development choices; it cannot be established merely by combining a long-term strategy with statementIII’s restrictive claim.
Q6Environment·Species Status, IUCN and EndemismPYQ 2026
With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- A1 only
- B1 and 2Correct
- C2 and 3
- D3 only
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is correct: Hollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam protects the species, whose global category is Endangered. But statement 2 is also correct, so selecting only the sanctuary fact is incomplete.
- Option C
Brachiation in statement 2 is right, but statement 3 gives the wrong body form. Gibbons’ relatively light bodies and elongated arms suit suspensory canopy travel; a gorilla-like heavy build is not their defining adaptation.
- Option D
The sole selected statement is the false one. Gibbons and gorillas are both apes, but shared group membership does not mean they have the same body proportions or locomotor specialisation.
Q7Environment·Species Status, IUCN and EndemismPYQ 2026
Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):
1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B1 and 3Correct
- C2 and 3
- D3 only
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
The foxtail orchid is an epiphyte: it grows on other plants, commonly tree trunks, for physical support. Statement 1 is therefore true, but selecting it alone misses its recognition as the state flower of both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
- Option C
Statement 3 is correct, but statement 2 confuses regional prominence with endemism. A species is endemic only when naturally restricted to a particular area; this orchid occurs across a much wider Asian range. Statement 1 should be included instead.
- Option D
Its state-flower status is correctly identified, but statement 1 is also true. Epiphytic growth describes its habitat strategy, while the separate claim that it occurs naturally only in North-east India is false.
Q8Environment·BiodiversityPYQ 2025
Consider the following pairs:
Plant - Description
1. Cassava : Woody shrub
2. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem
3. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber
4. Mint : Annual shrub
5. Papaya : Woody shrub
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- AOnly two
- BOnly threeCorrect
- COnly four
- DAll the five
Explanation
Correct. Cassava is a woody shrub, ginger is an herb with a pseudostem, and Malabar spinach is a herbaceous climber. Mint is a perennial herb (not an annual shrub), and papaya is a herbaceous tree-like plant (not a woody shrub).
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
More than two pairs are correctly matched. Cassava is indeed a woody shrub, ginger has a pseudostem, and Malabar spinach is a herbaceous climber.
- Option C
Mint is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub, and papaya has a soft, hollow trunk making it herbaceous rather than a woody shrub. So only three pairs match.
- Option D
Mint is a creeping perennial herb and papaya is technically a large herbaceous plant, so two of the five pairings are incorrect.
Q9Environment·Sustainability, Circular Economy and Green FinancePYQ 2025
Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana':
1. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
2. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
3. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A1 and 2 only
- B1 and 3 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3Correct
Explanation
Correct. All three statements accurately describe the PM Surya Ghar scheme's installation target, training objective, and skilling goal.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 3 is also correct; the scheme explicitly targets creation of over three lakh skilled personnel through its capacity-building component.
- Option B
Statement 2 is also correct; the MNRE aims to train personnel at grassroot levels for solar rooftop system installation and maintenance.
- Option C
Statement 1 is also correct; the scheme targets one crore residential solar rooftop installations across India.
Q10Environment·International Environmental ConventionsPYQ 2025
Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?
- AThe Asian Development Bank (ADB)Correct
- BThe Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
- CThe New Development Bank (NDB)
- DThe International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Explanation
Correct. The ADB launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific to mobilize investments in nature-based solutions across the region.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
AIIB focuses on infrastructure investment and has not launched this specific nature-finance hub.
- Option C
NDB (BRICS bank) finances development projects but did not launch this particular initiative.
- Option D
IBRD (part of the World Bank Group) has its own environmental funds but is not associated with this specific hub.
Q11Environment·Sustainability, Circular Economy and Green FinancePYQ 2025
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correctCorrect
Explanation
Correct. The USA is the world's largest ethanol producer (using corn), not Brazil; however, Brazil does use sugarcane as its principal feedstock.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement I is incorrect; the USA produces more ethanol than Brazil, making it the world's largest producer.
- Option B
Statement I is incorrect; the USA leads global ethanol production, not Brazil.
- Option C
Statement I is incorrect; the USA surpasses Brazil in ethanol output despite Brazil being the second-largest producer.
Q12Environment·Species Status, IUCN and EndemismPYQ 2025
Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:
1. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
2. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
3. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B1 and 3
- C2 only
- D2 and 3Correct
Explanation
Correct. The Gooty tarantula is an arachnid (not a crustacean, so statement 1 is wrong). It is found only in a small forest area near Gooty in Andhra Pradesh (statement 2) and is arboreal, living in tree hollows (statement 3).
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
The Gooty tarantula is an arachnid (not a crustacean) and is not omnivorous in the conventional sense. It is primarily insectivorous.
- Option B
Statement 1 is incorrect because a tarantula is an arachnid, not a crustacean. Statement 3 is correct as it lives in tree hollows.
- Option C
Statement 2 alone is insufficient. Statement 3 is also correct since the Gooty tarantula is arboreal, living in holes of tall trees in its restricted forest habitat.
Q13Environment·Climate Change SciencePYQ 2025
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement ICorrect
- BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Explanation
Correct. Reducing raw material extraction (Statement II) cuts emissions from mining and processing, and reducing production wastage (Statement III) lowers energy use and emissions. Both correctly explain how a circular economy reduces GHG emissions.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Both statements are correct and both contribute to explaining GHG reduction — less extraction means less energy use, and less waste means less processing and disposal emissions.
- Option C
Both Statements II and III are factually correct, not just one.
- Option D
Both statements are correct; circular economy principles by definition involve reducing virgin material inputs and minimizing waste.
Q14Environment·Environmental PollutionPYQ 2025
Consider the following:
1. Cigarette butts
2. Eyeglass lenses
3. Car tyres
How many of them contain plastic?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll the threeCorrect
- DNone
Explanation
Correct. Cigarette butts contain cellulose acetate (a plastic), eyeglass lenses are made of polycarbonate or CR-39 plastic, and car tyres contain synthetic rubber polymers which are classified as plastic.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
All three items contain plastic polymers, not just one.
- Option B
All three contain plastic, not just two.
- Option D
All three items contain various forms of plastic polymers.
Q15Environment·Climate Change SciencePYQ 2025
Consider the following statements:
1. CO₂ emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.
2. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region.
3. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 3 only
- B2 only
- C2 and 3 onlyCorrect
- D1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. India ranks second in Asia-Pacific for fuel combustion CO₂ emissions (after China), and the electricity and heat production sector is the largest emission source. India's per capita emissions are well above 0.5 t CO₂.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is incorrect — India's per capita CO₂ emissions exceed 0.5 tonnes (approximately 1.9 t CO₂/capita).
- Option B
Statement 3 is also correct — the power sector (electricity and heat) is the single largest source of CO₂ emissions in India.
- Option D
Statement 1 is wrong; India's per capita CO₂ emissions are approximately 1.9 tonnes, not less than 0.5.
Q16Environment·Climate Change SciencePYQ 2025
With reference to Direct Air Capture, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
2. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
3. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1, 2 and 3Correct
- DNone of the above statements is correct
Explanation
Correct. DAC captures CO₂ from ambient air for geological storage (1), the captured CO₂ can be used in food-grade carbonation and as a feedstock for plastics (2), and it can provide carbon for synthetic aviation fuels when combined with hydrogen (3).
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 3 is also correct — captured CO₂ can be combined with green hydrogen to produce synthetic aviation fuels (e-fuels).
- Option B
Statements 1 and 2 are also correct — DAC can permanently sequester CO₂ underground and supply CO₂ for carbonated beverages and polymer feedstocks.
- Option D
All three statements are correct descriptions of DAC applications.
Q17Environment·Environmental PollutionPYQ 2025
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement ICorrect
- BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Explanation
Correct. Activated carbon's large surface area (Statement II) enables it to adsorb pollutants effectively, and its easy synthesis from waste biomass (Statement III) makes it an attractive remediation tool. Both explain Statement I.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Both statements are correct and both contribute to explaining why activated carbon is an attractive remediation tool.
- Option C
Both Statement II and Statement III are factually correct, not just one.
- Option D
Both statements are correct. Activated carbon does have a large surface area for adsorption and can be made from agricultural waste and other carbon-rich materials.
Q18Environment·Environmental PollutionPYQ 2025
Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of which of the following?
- ASilver iodide and potassium iodideCorrect
- BSilver nitrate and potassium iodide
- CSilver iodide and potassium nitrate
- DSilver nitrate and potassium chloride
Explanation
Correct. Cloud seeding uses silver iodide and potassium iodide as nucleating agents to induce artificial rainfall, which helps wash out particulate pollutants from the atmosphere.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Silver nitrate is not the standard cloud-seeding agent; silver iodide is preferred because its crystal structure closely resembles that of ice.
- Option C
While silver iodide is correct, potassium nitrate is not the standard companion salt used in cloud seeding for pollution control.
- Option D
Neither silver nitrate nor potassium chloride is the standard agent for cloud seeding to reduce air pollution.
Q19Environment·BiodiversityPYQ 2025
Consider the following fruits:
1. Papaya
2. Pineapple
3. Guava
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll the threeCorrect
- DNone
Explanation
Correct. Papaya, pineapple and guava are all native to tropical America and were introduced to India by the Portuguese during the 16th-17th centuries through their maritime trade routes.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
All three fruits were brought to India by the Portuguese, not just one. Papaya, pineapple and guava are all New World species introduced during Portuguese colonial trade.
- Option B
All three, not just two, were introduced by the Portuguese. There is no basis for excluding any one of them from the list.
- Option D
All three are well-documented introductions from the New World via Portuguese traders and are not indigenous to the Indian subcontinent.
Q20Environment·Climate Change SciencePYQ 2025
The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where certain impacts of climate change become unmanageable. According to said report:
1. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
2. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 onlyCorrect
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. The World Bank's South Asia climate report highlighted that rising wet-bulb temperatures could make it physiologically impossible for humans and animals to shed body heat through perspiration, making parts of India potentially uninhabitable.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is not correctly attributed to the specific World Bank report; the report primarily highlighted wet-bulb temperature thresholds.
- Option C
Statement 1 is not accurately reflecting the report's key finding; the distinctive warning was about lethal heat stress from high wet-bulb temperatures.
- Option D
Statement 2 is correct — the report specifically warned about wet-bulb temperature thresholds beyond which thermoregulation through sweating fails.
Q21Environment·Ecology BasicsPYQ 2025
With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
1. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
2. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen.
3. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 2
- B2 onlyCorrect
- C1 and 3
- DNone of the above statements is correct
Explanation
Correct. Marine phytoplankton and cyanobacteria produce approximately 50% of Earth's oxygen. Rainforests do not outproduce oceans, and dissolved oxygen in surface water is far lower than atmospheric oxygen concentration.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is incorrect because oceans, through phytoplankton, produce roughly half of global oxygen, exceeding rainforest output. Statement 2 is correct.
- Option C
Statement 1 overstates rainforest contribution relative to oceans, and Statement 3 is factually wrong since atmospheric air contains about 21% oxygen while dissolved oxygen in water is measured in parts per million.
- Option D
Statement 2 is well-established in marine biology; phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria do contribute roughly half of global oxygen production.
Q22Environment·International Environmental ConventionsPYQ 2025
Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
- AThe European UnionCorrect
- BThe World Bank
- CThe Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
- DThe Food and Agriculture Organization
Explanation
Correct. The EU enacted the Nature Restoration Law in 2024, requiring member states to restore degraded ecosystems to address climate change and biodiversity loss.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
The World Bank funds conservation projects but does not enact legislation; NRL is EU legislation.
- Option C
OECD provides policy recommendations, not binding laws; the NRL is EU-specific legislation.
- Option D
FAO provides technical guidance on food and agriculture but does not enact environmental restoration laws.
Q23Environment·Climate Change SciencePYQ 2025
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement ICorrect
- COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Explanation
Correct. Both statements are factually correct, but only Statement III explains Statement I — the calcination process (CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂) is the primary source of cement industry CO₂ emissions. Adding silica-bearing clay is a manufacturing step that does not directly produce CO₂.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
While both statements are correct, only Statement III (calcination of limestone releasing CO₂) directly explains the high carbon emissions. Mixing clay with limestone does not itself release CO₂.
- Option C
Both statements are factually correct, not just one.
- Option D
Both statements are correct. Cement manufacturing does use limestone-clay mixtures, and calcination does convert limestone to lime.
Q24Environment·Sustainability, Circular Economy and Green FinancePYQ 2025
Consider the following types of vehicles:
1. Full battery electric vehicles
2. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
3. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative (powertrain) vehicles?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll the threeCorrect
- DNone
Explanation
Correct. Battery electric, hydrogen fuel cell, and fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles all use alternative powertrains distinct from internal combustion engines.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
All three types use non-conventional powertrains and qualify as alternative vehicles.
- Option B
Fuel cell electric hybrids also qualify as alternative powertrain vehicles alongside the other two.
- Option D
All three are recognised alternative powertrain vehicles by transport and energy authorities worldwide.
Q25Environment·Sustainability, Circular Economy and Green FinancePYQ 2024
One of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?
- AHydrogen peroxide
- BHydronium
- COxygen
- DWater vapourCorrect
Explanation
Correct. In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen to produce electricity and water vapour as the only exhaust emission.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Hydrogen peroxide is not produced in a PEM fuel cell; the electrochemical reaction yields water, not H₂O₂.
- Option B
Hydronium (H₃O⁺) is an intermediate ion in aqueous solutions, not a fuel cell exhaust product.
- Option C
Oxygen is a reactant consumed at the cathode, not an exhaust product of the fuel cell.