UPSC Prelims 2020 — solved PYQs

102 previous year questions from the 2020 UPSC Prelims paper, organised by subject — each solved with option-by-option explanations.

2020 PYQs by subject

Solved questions

A selection of 25 solved questions — sign up free to practise all 102.

Q1History & CultureSocio-Religious Reform MovementsPYQ 2020

The Vital-Vidhwansak, the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience, was published by:

  • AGopal Baba WalangkarCorrect
  • BJyotiba Phule
  • CMohandas Karamchand Gandhi
  • DBhimrao Ramji Ambedkar

Explanation

Correct. Gopal Baba Walangkar, a retired soldier from the Mahar community, was one of the earliest anti-caste activists and is credited with publishing Vital-Vidhwansak, a pioneering journal aimed at untouchable readers.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Jyotiba Phule was a major social reformer who founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj and wrote Gulamgiri, but he did not publish Vital-Vidhwansak.

Option C

Gandhi published the journal Harijan starting in 1933, not Vital-Vidhwansak. His engagement with untouchability came later than Walangkar's efforts.

Option D

Ambedkar published the newspaper Mook Nayak (1920) and Bahishkrut Bharat, but Vital-Vidhwansak was published by Walangkar, who preceded Ambedkar in anti-caste activism.

Q2EnvironmentAgriculture, Biotechnology and EnvironmentPYQ 2020

In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture? 1. Crop diversification 2. Legume intensification 3. Tensiometer use 4. Vertical farming Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A1, 2 and 3 onlyCorrect
  • B3 only
  • C4 only
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Correct. Crop diversification reduces pest pressure, legume intensification adds soil nitrogen naturally, and tensiometers optimise irrigation to prevent water waste.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Crop diversification and legume intensification are well-established eco-friendly practices endorsed by ICAR and NITI Aayog.

Option C

Vertical farming is energy-intensive and not classified as a standard eco-friendly agricultural practice in the Indian policy context.

Option D

Vertical farming's high energy requirement and artificiality exclude it from the conventional understanding of eco-friendly agriculture in India.

Q3Polity & GovernanceParliament and State LegislaturesPYQ 2020

With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health and education. 2. A specified portion of each MP's fund must benefit SC/ST populations. 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned yearly and unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. 4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B3 and 4 only
  • C1, 2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 4 onlyCorrect

Explanation

Correct. MPLADS funds are meant for creating durable community assets (Statement 1), a prescribed share must benefit SC/ST areas (Statement 2), and district authorities must inspect at least 10% of works under implementation (Statement 4). Statement 3 is wrong because unused funds can be carried forward.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, but Statement 4 is also correct.

Option B

Statements 3 is incorrect. Unused MPLADS funds can be carried forward.

Option C

Statement 3 is incorrect. Unspent MPLADS funds are not lost at year-end and can be carried forward to the next year.

Q4EnvironmentConservation Programmes and MissionsPYQ 2020

Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under 'Critical Tiger Habitat'?

  • ACorbett
  • BRanthambore
  • CNagarjunasagar-SrisailamCorrect
  • DSundarbans

Explanation

Correct. Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, spread across Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, has the largest notified Critical Tiger Habitat among all Indian tiger reserves.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Corbett has a significant Critical Tiger Habitat area but it is smaller than that of Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam.

Option B

Ranthambore's Critical Tiger Habitat is comparatively small given the reserve's overall modest extent.

Option D

Sundarbans Tiger Reserve has a unique mangrove habitat but its Critical Tiger Habitat area is smaller than Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam.

Q5ScienceComputers, ICT and Emerging TechPYQ 2020

With reference to "Blockchain Technology", consider the following statements: 1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls. 2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only. 3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody's permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C2 only
  • D1 and 3 onlyCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Blockchain is a transparent, decentralised public ledger (statement 1) and allows permissionless application development (statement 3). It is not limited to cryptocurrency data.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 3 is also correct; blockchain is a permissionless technology for building decentralised applications.

Option B

Statement 2 is incorrect; blockchain can store any type of data, not just cryptocurrency transactions.

Option C

Statement 2 is wrong. Blockchain is used for supply chain management, land records, identity verification, and many non-cryptocurrency applications.

Q6Indian EconomyExternal Sector & TradePYQ 2020

Which of the following provided immunity to India against the 2008 global financial crisis? 1. India not having full capital account convertibility. 2. Large foreign exchange reserves of India. 3. Small amount of foreign direct investment in India.

  • A1 onlyCorrect
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. India's restricted capital account prevented sudden massive outflows of the kind that devastated countries with fully open capital accounts.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

While large forex reserves are helpful, the UPSC key identifies incomplete capital account convertibility as the decisive factor that provided immunity.

Option C

Small FDI is generally a weakness, not a source of immunity. FDI is stable by nature and its small size did not shield India.

Option D

Statements 2 and 3 were not considered the key factors providing immunity in this context.

Q7History & CultureAdvent of Europeans and Company RulePYQ 2020

Wellesley established the Fort William College, Calcutta because:

  • AHe was asked by the Board of Directors at London to do so
  • BHe wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in India
  • CHe wanted to provide William Carey and his associates with employment
  • DHe wanted to train British civilians for administrative purpose in IndiaCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Lord Wellesley founded Fort William College in 1800 to train newly arrived East India Company civil servants in Indian languages, laws, and customs needed for effective administration of the expanding British territories.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The Board of Directors did not instruct Wellesley to establish the college. In fact, they later tried to reduce its scope.

Option B

While the college taught Indian languages, the primary purpose was practical administrative training, not reviving oriental learning.

Option C

While William Carey taught at the college, providing him employment was not the motivation for its establishment.

Q8Indian EconomyEconomic Reforms since 1991PYQ 2020

Post-1991 liberalization in rural India was associated with: 1. Non-farm economy growth in rural areas 2. Decline in growth rate of rural employment Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2Correct
  • DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Correct. Post-1991, rural areas saw non-farm economic growth but also a deceleration in the growth rate of rural employment.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 2 is also correct based on post-reform rural employment data.

Option B

Statement 1 is also correct; non-farm activities expanded in rural India.

Option D

Both statements are supported by employment data from the post-reform period.

Q9EnvironmentBiodiversityPYQ 2020

With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are:

  • ABirdsCorrect
  • BPrimates
  • CReptiles
  • DAmphibians

Explanation

Correct. All four are bird species found in India. Ceylon frogmouth belongs to Podargidae, Coppersmith barbet to Megalaimidae, Gray-chinned minivet to Campephagidae, and White-throated redstart to Muscicapidae.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

None of these are primates. They are all avian species belonging to different bird families found in the Indian subcontinent.

Option C

These are all bird species, not reptiles. Their names include typical avian family suffixes like frogmouth, barbet, minivet and redstart.

Option D

None of these species are amphibians. They are all well-documented bird species in Indian ornithology.

Q10EnvironmentClimate Change SciencePYQ 2020

In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for reducing the carbon footprint? 1. Copper slag 2. Cold mix asphalt technology 3. Geotextiles 4. Hot mix asphalt technology 5. Portland cement Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A1, 2 and 3 onlyCorrect
  • B2, 3 and 4 only
  • C4 and 5 only
  • D1 and 5 only

Explanation

Correct. Copper slag (industrial by-product reuse), cold mix asphalt (no heating needed, lower emissions), and geotextiles (reduce material use) all help lower the carbon footprint of road construction.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Hot mix asphalt requires high-temperature heating, which increases energy consumption and carbon emissions.

Option C

Both hot mix asphalt and Portland cement are energy-intensive and high-emission processes, the opposite of carbon-footprint reduction.

Option D

Portland cement production is one of the largest industrial sources of CO₂ and is not preferred for reducing carbon footprint.

Q11EnvironmentIndian Environmental Laws and InstitutionsPYQ 2020

If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?

  • AA licence is required to cultivate that plant.Correct
  • BSuch a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.
  • CIt is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
  • DSuch a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.

Explanation

Correct. Schedule VI of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 lists specified plants whose cultivation and trade require a licence from the competent authority.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Schedule VI does not impose an absolute ban; it requires a licence for cultivation and possession.

Option C

Schedule VI pertains to plant species needing protection, not to genetically modified organisms.

Option D

Schedule VI lists plants requiring protection due to conservation concerns, not those that are invasive.

Q12Indian EconomyFiscal Policy & BudgetingPYQ 2020

Non-financial debt of a country includes: 1. Housing loans owed by households 2. Credit card bills owed by households 3. Treasury bills issued by the government Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A1 only
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3Correct

Explanation

Correct. Non-financial debt includes all borrowings by non-financial entities such as households, corporations, and the government. Housing loans, credit card bills, and treasury bills all qualify.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This is incomplete because credit card debt and government treasury bills are also non-financial debt.

Option B

This is incomplete because government treasury bills are also part of non-financial debt.

Option C

This is incomplete because household loans and credit card obligations are also non-financial sector debt.

Q13Indian EconomyAgriculturePYQ 2020

Which of the following factors affect the price of rice in India? 1. Minimum Support Price 2. Government trading in rice 3. Government stockpiling of rice 4. Consumer subsidies on rice Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A1, 2 and 4 only
  • B1, 3 and 4 only
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4Correct

Explanation

Correct. All four factors — MSP, government trading, stockpiling and consumer subsidies — can influence the price of rice.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Government stockpiling (item 3) also affects supply in the open market and thereby price.

Option B

Government trading (item 2) directly affects market supply and demand dynamics.

Option C

MSP and consumer subsidies also materially influence rice pricing.

Q14ScienceComputers, ICT and Emerging TechPYQ 2020

In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? 1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one's computer 2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so 3. Cost of hiring a specialised consultant to minimise the loss in case of cyber extortion 4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A1, 2 and 4 only
  • B1, 3 and 4 onlyCorrect
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Correct. Cyber insurance covers system restoration costs, consultant fees for cyber extortion, and legal defence costs. Physical damage to hardware is not a cyber insurance benefit.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Physical damage to hardware (item 2) is typically covered under property insurance, not cyber insurance.

Option C

System restoration and legal defence costs are also covered under standard cyber insurance policies in India.

Option D

The cost of a new computer due to physical damage is not covered; cyber insurance addresses digital and cyber-related losses.

Q15Polity & GovernanceElections and Political DynamicsPYQ 2020

Consider the following statements: Statement 1: According to the Constitution of India, a person eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he or she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. Statement 2: According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after release from prison. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2Correct

Explanation

Correct. Statement 1 is wrong because Article 164(4) requires qualification to become a member, not merely voter eligibility. Statement 2 is wrong because the disqualification is not permanent — it lasts during imprisonment plus six years after release.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Incorrect. Mere eligibility to vote is not enough; a person must be qualified to become a member of the State Legislature to be appointed minister for six months under Article 164(4).

Option B

Incorrect. Disqualification under the RPA is not permanent — it extends through the period of imprisonment and for six years after release for relevant offences.

Option C

Incorrect. Both statements are wrong on the specifics of Article 164(4) and Section 8 of the RPA.

Q16EnvironmentConservation Programmes and MissionsPYQ 2020

Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?

  • AKanha National ParkCorrect
  • BManas National Park
  • CMudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
  • DTal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary

Explanation

Correct. Kanha National Park in Madhya Pradesh is famous for conserving the hard-ground Barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi), which was brought back from the brink of extinction through a dedicated species recovery effort.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Manas National Park in Assam is known for the Indian rhinoceros, wild buffalo, and pygmy hog, not the hard-ground Barasingha.

Option C

Mudumalai in Tamil Nadu is an elephant and tiger habitat in the Nilgiris; it has no Barasingha population.

Option D

Tal Chhapar in Rajasthan is a blackbuck sanctuary and does not support Barasingha.

Q17EnvironmentProtected Areas and Conservation FrameworksPYQ 2020

Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? 1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Gangotri National Park 3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary 4. Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A1 and 2 onlyCorrect
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C3 and 4 only
  • D1 and 4 only

Explanation

Correct. Musk deer inhabit high-altitude alpine scrub and forests of the Himalayas. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary (Uttarakhand) and Gangotri National Park (Uttarakhand) provide this habitat.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary is in the Terai lowlands of Uttar Pradesh, which is not suitable musk deer habitat.

Option C

Neither Kishanpur (Terai lowlands) nor Manas (Assam floodplains) provides the high-altitude habitat musk deer require.

Option D

Manas National Park is a lowland area in Assam. Musk deer are not typically found in such subtropical floodplain habitats.

Q18Polity & GovernanceImportant Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2020

Consider the following statements: 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. 2. States cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing Aadhaar data. 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 and 4 only
  • B2 and 4 onlyCorrect
  • C3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Correct. Under the Aadhaar framework, States cannot share Aadhaar data with private corporations, and Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act allows Aadhaar to be required for receipt of benefits and subsidies funded from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Aadhaar Act's metadata retention provisions are more nuanced than a blanket three-month limit as stated.

Option C

Statement 3 is incorrect. Following the Supreme Court's judgment in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2018), Aadhaar cannot be mandated by private entities including insurance companies.

Option D

Statement 1 is not correct in the form stated. The Aadhaar metadata storage rules have specific provisions that do not simply impose a three-month blanket restriction.

Q19Indian EconomyInternational Economic OrganizationsPYQ 2020

With reference to the TRIMS (Trade-Related Investment Measures) Agreement under the WTO, consider the following statements: 1. It prohibits investment measures that are inconsistent with GATT provisions on national treatment and quantitative restrictions. 2. It covers trade in both goods and services. 3. It is not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 onlyCorrect
  • B1 and 3 only
  • C2 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. The TRIMS Agreement applies to investment measures related to trade in goods and prohibits measures violating GATT Articles III (national treatment) and XI (quantitative restrictions).

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Statement 3 is misleading. While TRIMS does not regulate investment per se, it does address investment measures that distort goods trade.

Option C

TRIMS applies only to trade in goods, not services, making Statement 2 incorrect.

Option D

Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Q20Polity & GovernanceParliament and State LegislaturesPYQ 2020

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in:

  • ACreation of new All India Services
  • BAmending the ConstitutionCorrect
  • CRemoval of the government
  • DMaking cut motions

Explanation

Correct. Under Article 368, a Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed separately by each House with the required special majority. Neither House can override the other, making their powers equal in this regard.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Creation of All India Services is actually a special power of the Rajya Sabha under Article 312, where the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution. This is not an area of equal power but a special Rajya Sabha prerogative.

Option C

The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha alone under Article 75(3). The Rajya Sabha cannot pass a no-confidence motion to remove the government.

Option D

Cut motions are moved during discussion of Demands for Grants, which are presented only to the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has no role in voting on Demands for Grants.

Q21Current AffairsEconomy and Reports in NewsPYQ 2020

With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements: 1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government. 2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas. 3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B2 and 3 onlyCorrect
  • C2 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. Ammonia for urea production is derived from natural gas, and sulphur used in phosphoric acid manufacture is commonly recovered as a by-product from oil refineries.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 1 is incorrect because the government administers urea prices through the New Urea Policy and subsidises other fertilizers under the NBS scheme.

Option C

Statement 3 is also correct. Refinery sulphur is a significant input for phosphatic fertilizer production.

Option D

Statement 1 is wrong; fertilizer pricing in India is significantly government-administered, especially for urea.

Q22History & CultureEarly Medieval IndiaPYQ 2020

Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the 'Hundi' generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period?

  • AAn advisory issued by the king to his subordinates
  • BA diary to be maintained for daily accounts
  • CA bill of exchangeCorrect
  • DAn order from the feudal lord to his subordinates

Explanation

Correct. Hundi evolved as a financial instrument functioning essentially as a bill of exchange. It facilitated long-distance commercial transactions by allowing merchants to transfer funds without physically moving cash, reflecting the sophistication of medieval Indian commercial practices.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

A hundi was not a royal advisory or administrative order. It was a financial instrument used in commerce.

Option B

Hundi was not an accounting diary. It was a credit instrument facilitating trade transactions.

Option D

Hundi was a commercial and financial term, not a feudal administrative order. It belonged to the domain of trade and banking, not governance.

Q23GeographyIndian Resources and AgriculturePYQ 2020

What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture? 1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible. 2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible. 3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible. 4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A1, 2 and 3 only
  • B1, 2 and 4 only
  • C1, 3 and 4 onlyCorrect
  • D2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Correct. Fertigation can control irrigation water alkalinity (1), increase nutrient availability through targeted root-zone delivery (3), and reduce leaching losses (4). However, rock phosphate and similar phosphatic fertilizers are poorly soluble, making statement 2 incorrect.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 2 is incorrect. Rock phosphate and most phosphatic fertilizers are not easily soluble in water and hence cannot be efficiently applied through fertigation.

Option B

Statement 2 is incorrect. Phosphatic fertilizers generally cannot be applied efficiently through drip-based fertigation because of their low water solubility.

Option D

Statement 1 is also correct. Fertigation can help manage alkalinity of irrigation water.

Q24Current AffairsScience and Technology in NewsPYQ 2020

In India, the term 'Public Key Infrastructure' is used in the context of:

  • ADigital security infrastructureCorrect
  • BFood security infrastructure
  • CHealth care and education infrastructure
  • DTelecommunication and transportation infrastructure

Explanation

Correct. Public Key Infrastructure refers to the framework of certificates, encryption and authentication used to secure digital transactions and verify identities.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

PKI has no relation to food security; it deals with cryptographic key management.

Option C

Health care and education infrastructure is unrelated to the cryptographic and certificate framework described by PKI.

Option D

Although digital security supports telecom, PKI specifically concerns digital certificates and encryption, not physical telecom or transport infrastructure.

Q25History & CultureAdvent of Europeans and Company RulePYQ 2020

Which of the following statements correctly explains the impact of the Industrial Revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century?

  • AIndian handicrafts were ruinedCorrect
  • BMachines were introduced in the Indian textile industry in large numbers
  • CRailway lines were laid in many parts of the country
  • DHeavy duties were imposed on the imports of British manufactures

Explanation

Correct. The Industrial Revolution led to massive production of cheap machine-made textiles in Britain, which flooded Indian markets and destroyed the traditional Indian handicraft and handloom industries in the first half of the nineteenth century.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Machine-based textile production in India came much later, primarily after the 1850s. In the first half of the nineteenth century, India was de-industrialised.

Option C

Railway construction in India began only in 1853 with the Bombay-Thane line. Extensive railway building occurred in the second half of the nineteenth century.

Option D

The opposite was true: heavy duties were imposed on Indian exports to Britain, while British manufactures entered India with low or no tariffs.

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