Geography PYQs topic-wise — UPSC Prelims

270 previous year questions in Geography, organised topic-wise and year-wise — each solved with option-by-option explanations.

Geography PYQs topic-wise

Each PYQ is tagged to a syllabus topic. Open a topic for its chapter-wise MCQs with explanations.

Geography PYQs by year

Solved questions

A selection of 25 solved questions — sign up free to practise all 270.

Q1GeographyRegional Geography of IndiaPYQ 2026

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct? 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States. 2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States. 3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State. Select the answer using the code given below:

  • A1 only
  • B1 and 2
  • C2 and 3Correct
  • D3 only

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 26. Statements 2 and 3 are wrong. West Bengal’s Bangladesh border alone exceeds Rajasthan’s international border, so Rajasthan is not the longest-border state. Sikkim borders only West Bengal among Indian states, but Meghalaya also has just one Indian state neighbour, Assam; therefore the word “only” makes statement 3 false.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · Ministry of Home Affairs, Annual Report2014–15 — international border lengths · Government of Meghalaya — state boundaries · Census of India — Uttar Pradesh administrative map

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 1 is the correct statement, while the question asks for incorrect ones. Uttar Pradesh borders eight states; Delhi is additionally a Union Territory and should not be counted as a ninth state.

Option B

This wrongly marks statement 1 as false and misses the error in statement 3. Rajasthan does not have the longest international border, but Uttar Pradesh’s unusually high number of state neighbours is correct.

Option D

This correctly notices that Sikkim is not unique, but misses Rajasthan’s incorrect border-length claim. Meghalaya provides a direct counterexample to statement 3, while West Bengal disproves statement 2.

Q2GeographyTransport, Communication and Trade GeographyPYQ 2026

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India: I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct? 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I. 2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework. 3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation. Select the answer using the code given below:

  • A1 only
  • B1 and 2Correct
  • C2 and 3
  • D3 only

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 35. Relationships 1 and 2 are correct. PIB’s account links port-led development with improved shipping performance, then presents Sagarmala 2.0 and startup innovation as the next stage of maritime development. Relationship 3 is false because expanding infrastructure through innovation is compatible with the original objective.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · PIB: Sagarmala 2.0 and maritime startup innovation, 19 March 2025

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Relationship 1 is reasonable because growth in coastal and inland shipping and improved port performance are outcomes consistent with the programme’s objectives. It is incomplete, however: the innovation emphasis in Sagarmala 2.0 also extends those objectives, making relationship 2 correct.

Option C

Relationship 2 is correct, but relationship 3 invents a contradiction. The original programme’s infrastructure and logistics aims can support new technology and entrepreneurship; they do not require a permanent restriction to traditional methods. Relationship 1 must also be included.

Option D

Relationship 3 is incorrect: neither statement I nor the programme description excludes innovation. Sagarmala 2.0 builds upon port-led development rather than contradicting it, while the reported shipping and port improvements support relationship 1.

Q3GeographyIndian Climate and MonsoonPYQ 2026

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate. 2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon. 3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May. Select the answer using the code given below:

  • A1 only
  • B1 and 2Correct
  • C2 and 3
  • D3 only

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 33. Statements 1 and 2 match the islands’ official climate profile. Both southwest and northeast monsoons contribute rainfall, with the larger wet period extending from May toward December. Statement 3 reverses that timing by making December–May the maximum-rainfall interval.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · MoEFCC — Andaman and Nicobar Climate Action Plan, section3.4 · IMD MAUSAM research — Andaman monsoon onset and rainfall seasons

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The humid tropical coastal description is correct, but the islands also receive rain from both monsoon systems. Their maritime setting and latitude explain warm, moist conditions without making the second statement false.

Option C

Both monsoons contribute, but statement 3 gives the wrong principal wet-season interval. The dry-season portion of the year cannot be treated as the period of maximum precipitation simply because rainfall is possible in many months.

Option D

The official state climate plan identifies maximum precipitation between May and December, not December and May. The islands’ year-round humidity does not mean rainfall has no seasonal concentration.

Q4GeographyTransport, Communication and Trade GeographyPYQ 2026

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy? 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations. 2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination. 3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade. Select the answer using the code given below:

  • A1 only
  • B1 and 2
  • C2 and 3
  • D3 onlyCorrect

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (D), Series A question 24. The natural deep draft allows very large container ships to berth, and the location near major East–West routes supports transshipment. Handling more Indian cargo through an Indian hub can retain associated services and revenue and reduce reliance on foreign hubs. This is the mechanism in statement 3, rather than domestic isolation or a chiefly tourism-oriented project.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · PIB — Vizhinjam infrastructure, draft and transshipment role · Kerala government publication — Vizhinjam project overview

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Vizhinjam is an international container-transshipment facility, not exclusively a domestic cargo hub. Its value includes connecting Indian cargo with global shipping, so eliminating foreign collaboration is not the policy shift described.

Option B

Neither domestic exclusivity nor a primary cruise-tourism mission explains the project. These claims miss the port’s commercial container and transshipment purpose.

Option C

Statement 3 correctly identifies the strategic advantage, but statement 2 adds an incorrect primary purpose. Possible passenger or ancillary activity would not make cruise tourism the reason for the structural logistics shift.

Q5GeographyMinerals and Energy ResourcesPYQ 2026

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct? 1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs). 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India. 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector. 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements. Select the answer using the code given below:

  • A1 and 3 onlyCorrect
  • B3 only
  • C1, 3 and 4
  • D1, 2 and 4

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (A), Series A question 95. REEs support advanced technologies through uses such as magnets, electronics and optical components, and India launched NCMM in 2025. India is not second in rare-earth mine production, and REEs conventionally comprise 17 elements—the 15 lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium—so statements 2 and 4 are false.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · USGS: Rare Earths Statistics and Information · USGS Mineral Commodity Summaries 2026: rare earths production · Cabinet: National Critical Mineral Mission, 29 January 2025

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

The NCMM statement is correct, but the technological-use statement is also correct. Rare earths are inputs to components used in advanced computing, robotics and aerospace systems, rather than a category with no relevance to those technologies.

Option C

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, but adding statement 4 makes this option wrong. The standard grouping has 17 elements, not 13; “critical minerals” is a broader policy category and should not be treated as an identical list.

Option D

This option includes both false claims: India is not the second-largest rare-earth miner, and the group does not contain 13 elements. It also leaves out the correct 2025 NCMM statement.

Q6GeographyPhysiography of IndiaPYQ 2026

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India? 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity 2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills 3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers Select the answer using the code given below:

  • A1 only
  • B1 and 2Correct
  • C2 and 3
  • D3 only

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 34. Statements 1 and 2 match NCERT’s description of the Peninsular Block: a generally stable ancient basement affected locally by submergence and faulting, with relict and residual hills. Statement 3 describes youthful, steep-gradient Himalayan river landscapes rather than the peninsula’s generally shallow, low-gradient valleys. This is a regional comparison, not a claim that no peninsular river ever cuts a gorge.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · NCERT India: Physical Environment, Structure and Physiography, pp. 8–9

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 1 is correct: parts of the western margin have subsided, and the old Peninsular Block has experienced faulting and vertical movements. However, this choice omits statement 2: Veliconda and Mahendragiri are also examples of its residual relief.

Option C

Statement 2 is correct, but statement 3 incorrectly assigns the characteristic youthful Himalayan river profile to the Peninsular Block. Old peninsular landscapes generally have lower gradients and shallower valleys; statement 1 should also be included.

Option D

Deep V-shaped valleys cut by fast-flowing youthful rivers are characteristic of the Himalayan mountain belt in this comparison. The correct peninsular features are coastal submergence and residual hills, so selecting statement 3 alone reverses the distinction.

Q7GeographyWorld Physical GeographyPYQ 2026

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean? 1. Bahrain 2. Syria 3. Qatar 4. Egypt Select the answer using the code given below:

  • A1 and 2
  • B1 and 3Correct
  • C2 and 3
  • D3 and 4

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 30. Bahrain and Qatar have their coasts inside the Persian Gulf. To sail from those coasts to the open Indian Ocean, ships pass through Hormuz into the Gulf of Oman and Arabian Sea. This is a question about the coastal route, not the nationality printed on a ship registered elsewhere.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · U.S. EIA — Hormuz location and Persian Gulf route · U.S. EIA — world maritime chokepoints and Suez

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Bahrain is inside the Persian Gulf, but Syria is on the Mediterranean. Syria’s normal sea route toward the Indian Ocean goes through Suez and the Red Sea, not out of the Persian Gulf through Hormuz.

Option C

Qatar fits the Gulf-to-Hormuz route, but Syria does not. Locating a country in West Asia is insufficient; the decisive point is which sea its ports face.

Option D

Qatar must use the Gulf exit, but Egypt has Mediterranean and Red Sea coasts. Access from Egypt to the Indian Ocean uses the Red Sea and Bab-el-Mandeb route rather than Hormuz.

Q8GeographyIndian Drainage SystemsPYQ 2026

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information: 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It flows through three countries. 3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation. 4. It does not form distributaries. Select the answer from the following:

  • ABrahmaputra
  • BIndus
  • CSutlejCorrect
  • DTeesta

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 25. The Sutlej rises in Tibet, crosses India and enters Pakistan, where it joins the wider Indus drainage. It is an antecedent river and supports major irrigation works, including the Bhakra–Nangal canal system. In this comparison it joins another river instead of creating its own deltaic distributary network; artificial irrigation canals should not be confused with natural distributaries.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · NCERT via IIT Kanpur SATHEE — Drainage System, Himalayan rivers

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The Brahmaputra satisfies several broad clues, including a Tibetan origin and passage through China, India and Bangladesh. It fails the distinguishing delta/distributary clue because its lower course participates in the Ganga–Brahmaputra delta system.

Option B

The Indus also rises on the Tibetan Plateau and flows through three countries. However, its lower course forms a delta with distributary channels in Pakistan, so the fourth clue rules it out.

Option D

The Teesta flows through India and Bangladesh, rather than the three-country route specified. Its Sikkim Himalayan origin also does not fit the intended Tibetan-Plateau source, so it fails before the final clue is considered.

Q9GeographyIndian Drainage SystemsPYQ 2026

Consider the following assertion: In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa. Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion? 1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda 2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote 3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems Select the answer using the code given below:

  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • C1 and 2
  • D3Correct

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (D), Series A question 11. The keyed response is item 3: the historical argument uses related freshwater dolphins in separated drainage basins to suggest an earlier connection or river capture. A relevant update is that modern research recognises Indus and Ganges dolphins as distinct species, Platanista minor and P. gangetica. Their relationship does not establish the precise river diversion described; retain D for this provisional paper without teaching the wording “same species” as current taxonomy.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · Braulik et al. 2021 — original taxonomic revision of Platanista · NOAA Fisheries — Indus and Ganges dolphins are different species

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The Nadi-Sukta is evidence for rivers in Vedic textual geography, but it is not the biological basis selected for a proposed Pleistocene drainage connection. Its textual date and purpose must be distinguished from a much earlier geological hypothesis.

Option B

The provisional key does not identify Foote’s explorations as the basis. Archaeological fieldwork and the biogeographic distribution of river dolphins are different kinds of evidence; the latter is the intended line of reasoning here.

Option C

Combining the hymn and the attributed explorations still omits the dolphin-distribution argument selected by UPSC. Neither a river-name list nor a general exploration claim substitutes for the particular biogeographic evidence in item 3.

Q10GeographyPlaces in News and Map-Based GeographyPYQ 2026

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

  • AEcuadorCorrect
  • BPeru
  • CBolivia
  • DColombia

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (A), Series A question 31. Tungurahua Volcano UNESCO Global Geopark is in Ecuador’s Andes. UNESCO recognised it in 2025 alongside Napo Sumaco, also in Ecuador. A Global Geopark designation concerns a managed area of geological heritage, education and sustainable development; it is not the same designation as a World Heritage Site.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · UNESCO — Ecuador Adds Two New Global Geoparks,2025

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Peru is also an Andean country, which makes it a plausible regional distractor. But UNESCO’s 2025 announcement places Tungurahua Volcano in Ecuador, not Peru.

Option C

Bolivia’s position in the Andes does not identify this particular geopark. The correct country is Ecuador, as stated in UNESCO’s designation announcement.

Option D

Colombia is Ecuador’s northern neighbour and shares the Andean chain. Nevertheless, Tungurahua Volcano and the named 2025 geopark lie in Ecuador, so regional similarity is not enough.

Q11GeographyWorld Physical GeographyPYQ 2026

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct? 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world. 2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert. 3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’. Select the answer using the code given below:

  • A1 only
  • B1 and 3 onlyCorrect
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 39. Statements 1 and 3 are correct in the question’s usage. Turkana is a desert lake in the East African Rift, principally in Kenya with its northern end in Ethiopia, and is known as the Jade Sea. Strictly, the UNESCO inscription is “Lake Turkana National Parks,” rather than an unrestricted designation of the entire lake; statement 2’s South Sudan/Sahara location is wrong.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · UNESCO: Lake Turkana National Parks

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 1 is correct: UNESCO identifies Turkana as the world’s largest desert lake. But statement 3 is also accepted: the Lake Turkana National Parks form a World Heritage property and the lake is popularly called the Jade Sea.

Option C

Statement 2 is geographically incorrect: Turkana lies in the Kenya–Ethiopia region of East Africa, not in South Sudan on the Sahara’s eastern fringe. Statement 3 is accepted, but statement 1 should replace statement 2.

Option D

The inclusion of statement 2 makes this combination wrong. A desert lake is not necessarily in the Sahara: Turkana belongs to the East African Rift setting, while its largest-desert-lake status and Jade Sea association are correct.

Q12GeographyPlaces in News and Map-Based GeographyPYQ 2025

Consider the following pairs: Region - Country 1. Mallorca - Italy 2. Normandy - Spain 3. Sardinia - France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll the three
  • DNoneCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Mallorca belongs to Spain, Normandy is a region of France, and Sardinia is part of Italy. Since each pair assigns the wrong country, none is correctly matched.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Mallorca belongs to Spain, Normandy is a region of France, and Sardinia is part of Italy. Only one might seem tempting, but every single pairing assigns the wrong country.

Option B

Each of the three regions has been matched to the wrong country, so two correct is not possible.

Option C

All three are incorrectly matched: Mallorca is Spanish, Normandy is French, and Sardinia is Italian.

Q13GeographyWorld Physical GeographyPYQ 2025

Consider the following countries: 1. Bolivia 2. Brazil 3. Colombia 4. Ecuador 5. Paraguay 6. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

  • AOnly two
  • BOnly three
  • COnly fourCorrect
  • DOnly five

Explanation

Correct. The Andes extend through Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile and Argentina. Among the listed countries, Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador and Venezuela lie on the Andes, while Brazil and Paraguay do not.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

More than two of the listed countries lie along the Andes chain. Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador and Venezuela are all Andean nations.

Option B

Four, not three, of the listed countries are traversed by the Andes: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador and Venezuela.

Option D

Only four of the six listed countries are Andean. Brazil and Paraguay are both outside the Andes system.

Q14GeographyClimatology and Atmospheric CirculationPYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans. Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement ICorrect
  • BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  • CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
  • DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Correct. In winter the ocean cools more slowly than land, so marine air remains relatively warmer. This thermal contrast causes isotherms to bend poleward over oceans and equatorward over continents.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Statement II does explain Statement I. The differential heating between land and ocean is the direct cause of the isotherm bending pattern.

Option C

Statement II is correct. Oceans have higher specific heat and retain warmth longer in winter compared to continental landmasses.

Option D

Statement I is correct. This is a well-established pattern visible on any January isotherm map of the Northern Hemisphere.

Q15GeographyEarth Structure and GeomorphologyPYQ 2025

Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? 1. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. 2. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. 3. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • A1 and 3 only
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C1, 2 and 3Correct
  • D2 and 3 only

Explanation

Correct. All three are valid evidences: matching rock belts across the Atlantic, continuity of mineral deposits like Ghana's gold from the Brazilian shield, and the Gondwana sediment sequence found across six Southern Hemisphere landmasses.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This excludes the Ghana gold deposit evidence. The similarity of gold-bearing formations across the Atlantic was cited by Wegener as supporting evidence for continental drift.

Option B

This excludes the Gondwana sediment correlation. The Gondwana system of sediments found across India, Africa, South America, Antarctica, and Australia is a key evidence for continental drift.

Option D

This excludes the rock belt matching evidence. The geological continuity of Precambrian rock formations from Brazil to West Africa was one of the earliest and strongest arguments for continental drift.

Q16GeographyPlaces in News and Map-Based GeographyPYQ 2025

Consider the following countries: 1. The UK 2. Australia 3. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

  • AAll the five
  • BOnly four
  • COnly threeCorrect
  • DOnly two

Explanation

Correct. The UK (through overseas territories), Australia (mainland plus external territories), and Brazil each span more than four time zones when all territories are included.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The original question listed five countries including Denmark and New Zealand. Not all five have more than four time zones.

Option B

Four is not the right count based on the actual time zone coverage of these nations.

Option D

All three of these countries have more than four time zones.

Q17GeographyMaps, Lat-Long, Time and Geographical TechniquesPYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: 1. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometres from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days. 2. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 onlyCorrect
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Correct. Anadyr and Nome lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line, so their local dates differ despite geographic proximity. However, Anadyr is ahead of Nome, so when it is Monday in Anadyr it would still be Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday. Only Statement 1 is correct.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Statement 1 is correct because the International Date Line runs between the two cities. Statement 2 reverses the day relationship — Anadyr is ahead, not behind.

Option C

Statement 2 is wrong. Anadyr (UTC+12) is ahead of Nome (UTC-9), so when it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday.

Option D

Statement 1 is correct. The International Date Line does cause the two cities to experience different calendar dates at the same moment.

Q18GeographyClimatology and Atmospheric CirculationPYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  • BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  • CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correctCorrect
  • DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Correct. Dust loading is greater in subtropical and temperate belts because they contain major desert-source regions with active dry winds. Statement II wrongly claims these areas have less dry wind.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement II is incorrect. Subtropical and temperate zones have significant dry wind activity, which is actually one of the reasons dust loading is high there.

Option B

Statement II is factually wrong. These regions include major desert and dryland zones where dry winds are prevalent.

Option D

Statement I is correct. Major dust sources like the Sahara, Arabian, and Central Asian deserts lie in subtropical and temperate latitudes.

Q19GeographyWorld Resources and Economic GeographyPYQ 2025

Consider the following pairs: Country — Resource-rich in 1. Botswana — Diamond 2. Chile — Lithium 3. Indonesia — Nickel In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll the threeCorrect
  • DNone

Explanation

Correct. Botswana is one of the world's leading diamond producers, Chile holds the largest lithium reserves and is a top producer, and Indonesia is the world's largest nickel-ore producer and exporter.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

All three pairings are correct, not just one. Each country is a globally recognised leader in the mineral listed against it.

Option B

All three pairings are correct, not just two. Botswana is a top diamond producer, Chile leads in lithium, and Indonesia is the world's largest nickel producer.

Option D

All three pairings are factually correct. These are well-established country-mineral associations in world economic geography.

Q20GeographyEarth Structure and GeomorphologyPYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock. Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III: Clay is not at all porous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
  • BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
  • COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement ICorrect
  • DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Correct. Statement II is true — chalk is porous and absorbs water, explaining its permeability. Statement III is false because clay does have porosity; it is the tiny pore size that makes clay impermeable, not the absence of pores.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement III is incorrect because clay is actually porous; its fine particles can hold water in tiny spaces. However, clay's extremely small pore size makes it effectively impermeable, not non-porous.

Option B

Statement III claims clay is not at all porous, which is factually wrong. Clay has porosity but very low permeability due to its fine grain size, so both statements cannot be correct.

Option D

Statement II is correct. Chalk is indeed porous and can absorb water through its connected pore spaces and joints, which explains its high permeability.

Q21GeographyClimatology and Atmospheric CirculationPYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: 1. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. 2. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature. 3. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • A1 and 3 only
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C1, 2 and 3Correct
  • D2 and 3 only

Explanation

Correct. Without the atmosphere, Earth's mean surface temperature would be about -18°C. The greenhouse effect traps heat, and gases like CO2 are particularly effective at absorbing and re-radiating longwave radiation.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 2 is also correct. The atmosphere's greenhouse effect maintains Earth's average temperature well above what it would be without it.

Option B

Statement 3 is also correct. Greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide and water vapour are efficient absorbers of outgoing longwave radiation.

Option D

Statement 1 is also correct. Without the atmospheric blanket, Earth's blackbody temperature would be far below freezing.

Q22GeographyMaps, Lat-Long, Time and Geographical TechniquesPYQ 2025

Consider the following countries: 1. United Kingdom 2. Denmark 3. New Zealand 4. Australia 5. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

  • AAll the five
  • BOnly four
  • COnly threeCorrect
  • DOnly two

Explanation

Correct. The United Kingdom (including overseas territories such as Gibraltar, Bermuda and Pitcairn), Australia (mainland zones plus territories like Lord Howe, Norfolk and Christmas Island) and Brazil (Acre through Fernando de Noronha) each span more than four time zones. Denmark and New Zealand do not exceed that threshold.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Denmark and New Zealand do not exceed four time zones even when overseas territories are counted.

Option B

Only three countries — the UK, Australia and Brazil — meet the criterion when their overseas territories or island possessions are included.

Option D

Three, not two, of the listed countries have more than four time zones.

Q23GeographyEarth Structure and GeomorphologyPYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy. Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
  • BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement ICorrect
  • COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
  • DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Correct. Both statements are true, but only Statement III explains Statement I. Redistribution of mass from melting polar ice toward the equator alters Earth's rotational balance and contributes to polar drift. Solar flares do not cause axis shift.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

While both statements are factually correct, solar flares impact the magnetosphere and ionosphere but are not the mechanism behind the observed polar drift or rotational shift.

Option C

Both Statement II and Statement III are individually true. Solar flares do bombard the outer atmosphere, and polar meltwater does migrate equatorward.

Option D

Both statements are factually accurate. Solar flares deliver energy to the magnetosphere, and polar ice melt redistributes water mass toward lower latitudes.

Q24GeographyPlaces in News and Map-Based GeographyPYQ 2025

Consider the following water bodies: 1. Lake Tanganyika 2. Lake Tonle Sap 3. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?

  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll the three
  • DNoneCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Lake Tanganyika lies entirely south of the equator, Tonle Sap is in Cambodia well north of it, and Patos Lagoon in southern Brazil is also far south of the equator. None of the three is crossed by the equator.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Lake Tanganyika lies entirely south of the equator (roughly 3°S to 9°S), so even this one is not crossed by the equator.

Option B

None of the three water bodies is intersected by the equator, so two is incorrect.

Option C

All three lie away from the equator, so none is crossed by it.

Q25GeographyOceanographyPYQ 2024

Consider the following statements: 1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. 2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2Correct
  • DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Correct. The Red Sea lies in an arid belt receiving very little precipitation and has no major perennial river inflow. These factors contribute to its exceptionally high salinity.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 2 is also correct. The Red Sea has no major perennial river draining into it, making it one of the most saline water bodies in the world.

Option B

Statement 1 is also correct. The Red Sea lies in an arid belt with negligible rainfall over most of its basin.

Option D

Both statements are factually correct. The Red Sea's high salinity is a direct consequence of minimal freshwater input from rain or rivers.

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