Polity & Governance — UPSC Prelims PYQs

Question 1

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
I. Directorate of Enforcement — Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 — Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence — Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management — Carries out big data analytics to assist tax officers and detect tax evasion — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All the three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(B) Only two — Correct. The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, and the DGSM also falls under the Department of Revenue. The mismatch lies in the Directorate of Enforcement row — while it enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, it works under the Department of Revenue, not the Internal Security Division-I of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Question 2

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of office.
Statement II: No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during the term of office.
Statement III: Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

Accepted Answer

(D) I, II and III — Correct. Article 361 protects the Governor from being answerable to courts for official acts (Statement I) and bars criminal proceedings during the term of office (Statement II). Article 194 provides legislative privilege to members for anything said in the House (Statement III).

Question 3

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his or her own discretion.
Statement II: The President of India can, on his or her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) Statement I only (B) Statement II only (C) Both Statement I and Statement II (D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II

Accepted Answer

(A) Statement I only — Correct. Article 163(1) explicitly mentions that the Governor shall act in his discretion in matters where the Constitution requires him to do so. Statement II is wrong because the President cannot directly reserve a State bill; only the Governor can reserve a bill under Article 200.

Question 4

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
Statement I: It recommended grants of Rs. 4,800 crores from 2022-23 to 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
Statement II: Forty-five percent of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
Statement III: Rs. 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
Statement IV: It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. (A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) II, III and IV

Accepted Answer

(C) I, III and IV — Correct. The 15th FC recommended education-outcome grants, performance-based incentives for agricultural reforms, and reintroduced the tax effort criterion. Statement II is wrong because the recommended share was 41 percent, not 45 percent.

Question 5

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
Statement I: The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to Indian public servants posted outside India.
Statement II: The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of Parliament or of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
Statement III: The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office.
Statement IV: Lokpal cannot inquire into allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. (A) III only (B) II and III (C) I and IV (D) None of the above statements is correct

Accepted Answer

(A) III only — Correct. Only Statement III is correct. The minimum age requirement of 45 years for the Chairperson or a Member of Lokpal is accurately stated under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.

Question 6

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
Statement I: An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
Statement II: An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
Statement III: An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

Accepted Answer

(C) I and III only — Correct. An ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend an existing Central Act (Statement I correct). It may also be given retrospective effect, i.e., come into effect from a back date (Statement III correct). However, Statement II is wrong because the ordinance power is subject to the Constitution and cannot abridge Fundamental Rights.

Question 7

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
Statement II: According to the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from the political party immediately.
Statement III: The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed by a resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that at least fourteen days' notice has been given.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

Accepted Answer

(C) I and III only — Correct. The Speaker continues in office after dissolution until immediately before the first meeting of the next Lok Sabha (Statement I, Article 94). There is no constitutional requirement to resign from the party (Statement II is false). The Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members after 14 days' notice (Statement III, Article 94).

Question 8

With reference to India, consider the following:
I. Inter-State Council
II. National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All the three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(A) Only one — Correct. Only the Inter-State Council is a constitutional body, established under Article 263. The National Security Council is an executive body created by a government order, and Zonal Councils were created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

Question 9

Consider the following pairs:
I. Separation of judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State — Directive Principles of State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture — Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories — Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All the three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(C) All the three — Correct. Separation of judiciary from executive is a DPSP under Article 50, valuing and preserving composite culture is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(f), and prohibition of employment of children below 14 in factories is a Fundamental Right under Article 24.

Question 10

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
Statement II: The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) Statement I only (B) Statement II only (C) Both Statement I and Statement II (D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II

Accepted Answer

(D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II — Correct. Statement I is incorrect because the State Government does not lose executive power. Statement II is incorrect because the Fifth Schedule does not provide for Union takeover of total administration on gubernatorial recommendation.

Question 11

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
Statement II: There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

Accepted Answer

(D) Neither I nor II — Correct. Statement I is wrong because the Speaker or Chairman decides defection cases, not the President. Statement II is wrong because the Tenth Schedule expressly uses the term 'political party'.

Question 12

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
Statement II: To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
Statement III: The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats and to make recommendations regarding distribution of State taxes and duties between the State and Panchayats. (A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

Accepted Answer

(D) I, II and III — Correct per the official answer key. However, constitutionally: intermediate-level Panchayats are not mandatory in States with populations below 20 lakh; the minimum age is 21 years not 30; and the State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor, not the Chief Minister. The PYQ answer key uses (d) as the correct option.

Question 13

Consider the following statements with regard to the pardoning power of the President of India:
Statement I: The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
Statement II: The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (B) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect (C) Both Statements I and II are correct (D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct

Accepted Answer

(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect — Correct. Statement I is correct because the Supreme Court in Maru Ram v. Union of India and Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh recognized limited judicial review of the pardoning power on grounds of mala fides, arbitrariness, or non-application of mind. Statement II is wrong because the President exercises pardon power under Article 72 on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

Question 14

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
1. List I — Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
2. Extent of the executive power of a State
3. Conditions of the Governor's office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above is ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States required before the bill is presented to the President for assent? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(A) 1 and 2 only — Correct. Ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures is required for amendments affecting the Seventh Schedule (which includes the Union List) and the extent of executive power of the States. These are federal provisions requiring broader consent.

Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
1. Its provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. It will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. It provides reservation of seats for Scheduled Caste women within the quota reserved for Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only

Accepted Answer

(C) 2 and 3 only — Correct. The reservation is to remain in force for 15 years (Statement 2), and the 106th Amendment explicitly provides reservation for Scheduled Caste women within the SC quota (Statement 3). Statement 1 is incorrect as the timing depends on delimitation.

Question 16

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President has notified intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 only

Accepted Answer

(B) 1 and 2 — Correct. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on dissolution (Statement 1). A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses on dissolution (Statement 2). However, a bill for which the President has notified intention to summon a joint sitting does not lapse because the joint sitting mechanism preserves it (Statement 3 is incorrect).

Question 17

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to: (A) A government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action (B) The Parliament or legislative Assembly to pass a law on prohibition (C) The lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case (D) The Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy

Accepted Answer

(C) The lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case — Correct. A writ of prohibition is issued by a superior court to an inferior court or tribunal to stop proceedings that exceed jurisdiction or violate the law. It is preventive in nature, unlike certiorari which quashes a decision already made.

Question 18

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IXA of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(D) 1, 2 and 3 — Correct. Part IXA deals with Municipalities (added by the 74th Amendment), Part XVIII covers Emergency Provisions, and Part XX contains Article 368 relating to the amendment of the Constitution. All three statements correctly identify the relevant Parts.

Question 19

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements. While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration:
1. He or she shall not preside.
2. He or she shall not have the right to speak.
3. He or she shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(A) 1 only — Correct. Under Article 96, the Speaker shall not preside while a resolution for removal is being considered. However, the Speaker retains the right to speak and participate in proceedings, and is entitled to vote in the first instance on the resolution (unlike the normal casting-vote-only rule).

Question 20

How many Delimitation Commissions had been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four

Accepted Answer

(D) Four — Correct. Delimitation Commissions were set up in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002, making a total of four up to December 2023.

Question 21

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? (A) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List (B) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List (C) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List (D) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List

Accepted Answer

(C) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List — Correct. Inter-State quarantine appears in the Union List (Entry 81A). Matters that involve cross-State coordination, such as quarantine, are placed under Union jurisdiction to ensure uniformity.

Question 22

Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a Member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub judice.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(C) 1 and 3 only — Correct. The Lok Sabha Ethics Committee started as an ad hoc committee (Statement 1 correct). Complaints are not restricted only to Lok Sabha members (Statement 2 incorrect). The Committee ordinarily does not take up matters that are sub judice (Statement 3 correct).

Question 23

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4

Accepted Answer

(A) 1, 2 and 3 — Correct. The 71st Amendment (1992) added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule, raising the number of scheduled languages from 15 to 18.

Question 24

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar to the President prorogating the House while it is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 only

Accepted Answer

(C) 2 and 3 — Correct. Statement 1 is wrong because prorogation is done on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Statement 2 is correct because prorogation usually follows adjournment sine die, though the President can prorogue a House while in session. Statement 3 is correct because dissolution of the Lok Sabha ordinarily requires ministerial advice.

Question 25

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Accepted Answer

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only — Correct. After the 2002 amendment, the NEC includes the Governors and Chief Ministers of the constituent States and three members nominated by the President. The Union Home Minister is not a member; the Union Minister for Development of North Eastern Region serves as chairperson.

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