Polity & Governance PYQs topic-wise

Question 1

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project—a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
3. Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(B) 3 only — UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 53. Statement 3 best balances integrity, confidentiality and fairness. Limited disclosure to an authorised oversight committee allows the concern to be checked and considered without prematurely publishing allegations or excluding the contractor. It also avoids silently withholding relevant risk information merely to protect the department’s reputation. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [UPSC CSE Preliminary Examination 2026 GS I question paper, scenario as printed]()

Question 2

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 only (D) 2 only

Accepted Answer

(D) 2 only — UPSC provisional key: (D), Series A question 62. Only statement 2 is accepted by the provisional key. Section 173(3) permits a preliminary enquiry, with prior permission of an officer not below Deputy Superintendent of Police, for the specified category of offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years, within fourteen days. This is a qualified initial procedure, not a general licence to delay any registered FIR. Statements 1 and 3 respectively overextend the rule to non-cognizable offences and wrongly require electronic reporting. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [NCRB: BNSS sections 173 and 174, complete statutory text]() · [Kerala Police Circular 3/2026: preliminary enquiry under BNSS section 173(3)]()

Question 3

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions? (A) Esprit de corps (B) Equity (C) Accountability (D) Delegation

Accepted Answer

(C) Accountability — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 51. Accountability is the strongest fit because the officer reports misconduct to the appropriate authority and acts against a contractor compromising public welfare. The scenario illustrates answerability and consequences despite pressure from vested interests. Integrity and courage are also present, but accountability is the best match among the listed principles. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [UPSC CSE Preliminary Examination 2026 GS I question paper, scenario as printed]()

Question 4

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:
1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? (A) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2. (B) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3. (C) There is only one correct statement. (D) All three statements are correct.

Accepted Answer

(A) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2. — UPSC provisional key: (A), Series A question 57. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Schedule III, item 19, read with section 11 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 excludes specified income of eligible Scheduled Tribe members; this is not a blanket exemption for all tribal people or income. Article 243D reserves a portion of SC/ST Panchayat seats for women. Statement 1 should say Sixth Schedule, not Fifth Schedule. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [India Code: Constitution of India, Articles 13, 243D, 244 and 393–395]() · [TRIFED: Tribal areas under the Sixth Schedule]() · [Kerala local government law manual: Article 243D(2)]() · [Income Tax Department: Income-tax Act, 2025, section 11 and Schedule III item 19]()

Question 5

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above:
1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives—to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.
Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process? (A) 1, 3 and 4 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Accepted Answer

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only — UPSC provisional key: (A), Series A question 52. Statements 1, 3 and 4 support mediation: acknowledge the community’s cultural concerns, include affected groups and experts, and share independent impact evidence. They address both recognition and practical evaluation of alternatives. Statement 2 dismisses one group’s rights and concerns before that process, making a durable settlement less likely. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [UPSC CSE Preliminary Examination 2026 GS I question paper, scenario as printed]()

Question 6

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? (A) All the three statements are correct. (B) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2. (C) There is only one correct statement. (D) There is no correct statement.

Accepted Answer

(C) There is only one correct statement. — UPSC provisional key: (C), Series A question 58. Only statement 3 is correct. Unstarred questions are answered in writing and do not permit supplementary questions; starred questions are listed for oral answers. The question tests the reversal of the first two definitions, not a restriction on all parliamentary follow-up. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Lok Sabha: Frequently asked questions on question procedure]()

Question 7

‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below: (A) ‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom. (B) The view of ‘Y’ that ‘law’ included custom is not correct. (C) The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct. (D) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

Accepted Answer

(D) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct. — UPSC provisional key: (D), Series A question 54. Y is correct on the disputed inclusion of custom or usage having the force of law. X’s examples of ordinances, orders and rules are valid, but his refusal to include such custom makes his overall position incomplete. Article 13(3)(a) resolves the disagreement expressly. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [India Code: Constitution of India, Articles 13, 243D, 244 and 393–395]() · [Supreme Court of India: Indian Young Lawyers Association judgment, 28 September 2018, Article 13 discussion]()

Question 8

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:
1. Organisation: Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB); Function: To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies; Controlling Union Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Organisation: Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO); Function: To investigate complex corporate frauds; Controlling Union Ministry: Ministry of Finance
3. Organisation: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI); Function: To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy; Controlling Union Ministry: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None

Accepted Answer

(A) 1 — UPSC provisional key: (A), Series A question 63. Exactly one row, row 3, is correctly matched. CEIB is under the Ministry of Finance, while SFIO is under Corporate Affairs; their plausible functions do not rescue the wrongly assigned ministries. CBI’s administrative placement is under Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, and the stated public-life/economic-health objective matches its institutional mission. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [CEIB: About the bureau and Ministry of Finance affiliation]() · [SFIO: About SFIO and Ministry of Corporate Affairs affiliation]() · [DoPT: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions annual report, CBI chapter]() · [CBI: institutional role, mission and investigative functions]()

Question 9

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?
1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(B) 2 only — UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 74. Only statement 2 is correct: the revamped RGSA strengthens Panchayati Raj Institutions to pursue the Sustainable Development Goals. Its approved period began on 1 April 2022; state-component funding is generally shared 60:40, with 90:10 for specified northeastern/hill jurisdictions and J&K, rather than universal 100% central financing. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Cabinet approval of revamped RGSA, 13 April 2022]()

Question 10

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? (A) All three statements are correct. (B) There is no correct statement. (C) There are two correct statements that include statement 3. (D) There is only one correct statement.

Accepted Answer

(B) There is no correct statement. — UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 55. None of the three statements is correct. Article 393 provides the title; Article 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and Government of India Act, 1935; and Article 394 brings the remaining provisions into force on 26 January 1950 after specified provisions commenced immediately. Remember the sequence: title, commencement, repeals. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [India Code: Constitution of India, Articles 13, 243D, 244 and 393–395]()

Question 11

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?
1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
Select the answer using the code given below: (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 only

Accepted Answer

(B) 2 only — UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 56. Only statement 2 is correct: Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan covers the built environment, transport and information/communication accessibility. Statement 1 wrongly says the disability-rights Act was passed in 2018 rather than 2016. NDFDC belongs under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities in the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [DEPwD: Acts administered by the department]() · [DEPwD: Accessible India Campaign FAQs]() · [NDFDC: Ministry and department affiliation]()

Question 12

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? (A) There are four correct statements. (B) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2. (C) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1. (D) There is no correct statement.

Accepted Answer

(D) There is no correct statement. — UPSC provisional key: (D), Series A question 59. No statement is correct. The correct pattern is: chairperson appointed by the Speaker; 20 Lok Sabha plus 10 Rajya Sabha members; no minister eligible; and a term not exceeding one year. Matching each part separately prevents the plausible joint-House wording from concealing the errors. Sources: [UPSC provisional answer key]() · [Lok Sabha: Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes]()

Question 13

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
I. Directorate of Enforcement — Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 — Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence — Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management — Carries out big data analytics to assist tax officers and detect tax evasion — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All the three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(B) Only two — Correct. The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, and the DGSM also falls under the Department of Revenue. The mismatch lies in the Directorate of Enforcement row — while it enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, it works under the Department of Revenue, not the Internal Security Division-I of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Question 14

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of office.
Statement II: No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during the term of office.
Statement III: Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

Accepted Answer

(D) I, II and III — Correct. Article 361 protects the Governor from being answerable to courts for official acts (Statement I) and bars criminal proceedings during the term of office (Statement II). Article 194 provides legislative privilege to members for anything said in the House (Statement III).

Question 15

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his or her own discretion.
Statement II: The President of India can, on his or her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) Statement I only (B) Statement II only (C) Both Statement I and Statement II (D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II

Accepted Answer

(A) Statement I only — Correct. Article 163(1) explicitly mentions that the Governor shall act in his discretion in matters where the Constitution requires him to do so. Statement II is wrong because the President cannot directly reserve a State bill; only the Governor can reserve a bill under Article 200.

Question 16

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
Statement I: It recommended grants of Rs. 4,800 crores from 2022-23 to 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
Statement II: Forty-five percent of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
Statement III: Rs. 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
Statement IV: It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. (A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) II, III and IV

Accepted Answer

(C) I, III and IV — Correct. The 15th FC recommended education-outcome grants, performance-based incentives for agricultural reforms, and reintroduced the tax effort criterion. Statement II is wrong because the recommended share was 41 percent, not 45 percent.

Question 17

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
Statement I: The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to Indian public servants posted outside India.
Statement II: The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of Parliament or of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
Statement III: The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office.
Statement IV: Lokpal cannot inquire into allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. (A) III only (B) II and III (C) I and IV (D) None of the above statements is correct

Accepted Answer

(A) III only — Correct. Only Statement III is correct. The minimum age requirement of 45 years for the Chairperson or a Member of Lokpal is accurately stated under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.

Question 18

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
Statement I: An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
Statement II: An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
Statement III: An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

Accepted Answer

(C) I and III only — Correct. An ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend an existing Central Act (Statement I correct). It may also be given retrospective effect, i.e., come into effect from a back date (Statement III correct). However, Statement II is wrong because the ordinance power is subject to the Constitution and cannot abridge Fundamental Rights.

Question 19

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
Statement II: According to the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from the political party immediately.
Statement III: The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed by a resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that at least fourteen days' notice has been given.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

Accepted Answer

(C) I and III only — Correct. The Speaker continues in office after dissolution until immediately before the first meeting of the next Lok Sabha (Statement I, Article 94). There is no constitutional requirement to resign from the party (Statement II is false). The Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members after 14 days' notice (Statement III, Article 94).

Question 20

With reference to India, consider the following:
I. Inter-State Council
II. National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All the three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(A) Only one — Correct. Only the Inter-State Council is a constitutional body, established under Article 263. The National Security Council is an executive body created by a government order, and Zonal Councils were created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

Question 21

Consider the following pairs:
I. Separation of judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State — Directive Principles of State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture — Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories — Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All the three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(C) All the three — Correct. Separation of judiciary from executive is a DPSP under Article 50, valuing and preserving composite culture is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(f), and prohibition of employment of children below 14 in factories is a Fundamental Right under Article 24.

Question 22

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
Statement II: The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) Statement I only (B) Statement II only (C) Both Statement I and Statement II (D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II

Accepted Answer

(D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II — Correct. Statement I is incorrect because the State Government does not lose executive power. Statement II is incorrect because the Fifth Schedule does not provide for Union takeover of total administration on gubernatorial recommendation.

Question 23

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
Statement II: There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

Accepted Answer

(D) Neither I nor II — Correct. Statement I is wrong because the Speaker or Chairman decides defection cases, not the President. Statement II is wrong because the Tenth Schedule expressly uses the term 'political party'.

Question 24

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
Statement II: To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
Statement III: The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats and to make recommendations regarding distribution of State taxes and duties between the State and Panchayats. (A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

Accepted Answer

(D) I, II and III — Correct per the official answer key. However, constitutionally: intermediate-level Panchayats are not mandatory in States with populations below 20 lakh; the minimum age is 21 years not 30; and the State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor, not the Chief Minister. The PYQ answer key uses (d) as the correct option.

Question 25

Consider the following statements with regard to the pardoning power of the President of India:
Statement I: The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
Statement II: The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (B) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect (C) Both Statements I and II are correct (D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct

Accepted Answer

(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect — Correct. Statement I is correct because the Supreme Court in Maru Ram v. Union of India and Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh recognized limited judicial review of the pardoning power on grounds of mala fides, arbitrariness, or non-application of mind. Statement II is wrong because the President exercises pardon power under Article 72 on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

Polity & Governance PYQs topic-wise — UPSC Prelims

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Topic	PYQs	Last asked
Making of the Constitution	4	2026
Philosophy of the Constitution	9	2024
Fundamental Rights	20	2026
DPSPs and Fundamental Duties	22	2025
Union Executive	22	2025
State Executive	9	2025
Parliament and State Legislatures	47	2026
Judiciary	28	2024
Federalism and Local Governance	30	2026
Emergency Provisions and Amendment Process	20	2025
Elections and Political Dynamics	20	2025
Constitutional Bodies	14	2025
Non-Constitutional Bodies	19	2026
Important Acts and Rights-Based Governance	23	2026
Post-Independence Governance and India in the World	14	2017
Political Theory and Comparative Concepts	26	2026