UPSC Prelims 2023 — solved PYQs

Question 1

Consider the following organizations or bodies in India:
1. National Commission for Backward Classes
2. National Human Rights Commission
3. Law Commission
4. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) Only three (D) All four

Accepted Answer

(A) Only one — Correct. Only the National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body, established under Article 338B inserted by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018. The other three are statutory or executive bodies.

Question 2

Consider the following statements in respect of Constitution Day:
Statement I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26 November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement II: On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly set up a Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Accepted Answer

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect — Correct. Statement I is correct — the Government of India declared 26 November as Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) in 2015 to mark the adoption of the Constitution. Statement II is incorrect because the Drafting Committee was set up on 29 August 1947, not on 26 November 1949. On 26 November 1949, the Constitution was adopted.

Question 3

Which activity of the Reserve Bank of India is considered part of 'sterilization'? (A) Conducting Open Market Operations (B) Oversight of settlement and payment systems (C) Debt and cash management for Central and State Governments (D) Regulating non-banking financial institutions

Accepted Answer

(A) Conducting Open Market Operations — Correct. Sterilization involves OMOs to offset the domestic liquidity impact of RBI foreign exchange intervention.

Question 4

With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:
1. Biofilters provide a medium for nitrifying bacteria that convert ammonia to nitrate.
2. Biofilters increase the dissolved oxygen content in water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) 2 only (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Accepted Answer

(B) Both 1 and 2 — Correct. Biofilters host nitrifying bacteria (Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter) that convert toxic ammonia to less toxic nitrate (Statement 1), and the trickling of water through the filter media also helps increase dissolved oxygen (Statement 2).

Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:
1. TheMinamata Convention)__ on Mercury is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury.
2. Mercury is released into the environment primarily through volcanic eruptions and weathering of rocks only.
3. Artisanal and small-scale gold mining is the largest source of anthropogenic mercury emissions globally.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(C) 1 and 3 only — Correct. The Minamata Convention is indeed a global mercury treaty (Statement 1), and artisanal gold mining is the largest anthropogenic mercury source (Statement 3). Statement 2 is wrong because it excludes major anthropogenic sources.

Question 6

Consider the following statements about the International Grains Council (IGC):
1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. Membership of the IGC is a mandatory precondition for engaging in international grain trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Accepted Answer

(A) 1 only — Correct. India is a member of the IGC. However, IGC membership is not required for international grain trade; non-member countries also trade grains internationally.

Question 7

Consider the following pairs:
Objects in space : Description
1. Cepheids — Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
2. Nebulae — Stars which brighten and dim periodically
3. Pulsars — Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(A) Only one — Correct. Only pair 3 is correct. Cepheids are variable stars (not dust clouds), nebulae are gas-dust clouds (not variable stars), and pulsars are indeed rapidly rotating neutron stars formed from collapsed massive stars.

Question 8

Consider the following:
1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy
On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) Only three (D) All four

Accepted Answer

(C) Only three — Correct. UNOPS S3i focuses on affordable housing, renewable energy and health care infrastructure, but not mass rapid transport.

Question 9

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
1. Members nominated to either House of Parliament or to State Legislative Assemblies are included in the Electoral College.
2. The higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the population-to-elected-seat ratio is greater in Puducherry.
How many of the above statements are correct? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) Only three (D) All four

Accepted Answer

(A) Only one — Correct. Only Statement 4 is correct. Nominated members are excluded from the Electoral College (Statement 1 wrong). The vote value depends on the population-to-seat ratio, not just the number of seats (Statement 2 wrong). Kerala's MLA vote value is higher than Madhya Pradesh's (Statement 3 wrong). Puducherry's higher population-to-seat ratio does produce a higher vote value than Arunachal Pradesh's (Statement 4 correct).

Question 10

Consider the following activities:
1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(C) All three — Correct. Enhanced rock weathering (basalt on farmlands), ocean alkalinity enhancement (adding lime to oceans), and mineral carbonation in subterranean formations are all recognized carbon capture and sequestration approaches.

Question 11

With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on international borders or coastal areas, Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(B) Only two — Correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because Home Guards are organized primarily under State-level laws and rules, not under a single Central Home Guards Act. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Home Guards function as an auxiliary to the police for internal security, and Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States for border and coastal vigilance.

Question 12

Carbon markets are primarily designed to: (A) Fix retail fuel prices (B) Create tradable instruments linked to emission reductions or emission allowances (C) Replace all environmental regulation (D) Transfer resources only from private firms to the government

Accepted Answer

(B) Create tradable instruments linked to emission reductions or emission allowances — Correct. Carbon markets put a price on carbon by allowing trading of emission permits or credits linked to emission reduction.

Question 13

With reference to niger seeds, consider the following statements:
1. MSP is announced for nigerseed.
2. It is grown as a Kharif crop in India.
3. Nigerseed oil is used by some tribal communities for cooking.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Accepted Answer

(D) 1, 2 and 3 — Correct. All three statements are accurate regarding nigerseed.

Question 14

Consider the following statements in respect of the United Nations' World Water Development Report, 2022:
Statement I: According to the report, India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Accepted Answer

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect — Correct. India does extract over a quarter of global groundwater, but the primary driver is irrigation rather than drinking water and sanitation needs.

Question 15

Consider the following countries:
1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? (A) Only two (B) Only three (C) Only four (D) Only five

Accepted Answer

(A) Only two — Correct. Ukraine shares land borders with Hungary and Romania among the listed countries. Bulgaria connects only via the Black Sea region without a direct land border, while Czech Republic, Latvia, and Lithuania do not directly border Ukraine.

Question 16

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Accepted Answer

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect — Correct. Marsupials are not naturally found in the Indian subcontinent due to plate tectonic and biogeographical history. Statement II is wrong because marsupials occupy a wide range of habitats globally, not just montane grasslands.

Question 17

Consider the following fauna:
1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(A) Only one — Correct. Among the three, only the Malabar Civet is primarily nocturnal. The Lion-tailed Macaque is diurnal (active during the day), and the Sambar Deer is mostly crepuscular but not strictly nocturnal.

Question 18

Consider the following statements:
1. Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972:
1. The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest.
2. Hunting is not allowed in such area.
3. People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.
4. People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices.
How many of the above statements are correct? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) Only three (D) All four

Accepted Answer

(B) Only two — Correct. Hunting is prohibited in Community Reserves and people are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce. However, the governing authority is a Community Reserve Management Committee (not the CWLW), and agricultural practices are regulated.

Question 19

'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations? (A) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go (B) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat (C) Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals (D) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

Accepted Answer

(A) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go — Correct. Aerial metagenomics involves sampling environmental DNA (eDNA) directly from air to catalogue biodiversity in a habitat without capturing organisms.

Question 20

Consider the following statements:
1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All three (D) None

Accepted Answer

(A) Only one — Correct. Only statement 1 is correct. The Jhelum flows through Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir. Kolleru lies between the Krishna and Godavari deltas but is not directly fed by the Krishna. Kanwar Lake in Bihar is an oxbow lake associated with older fluvial processes, not specifically the Gandak's current meandering.

Question 21

Consider the following statements:
1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraft.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Accepted Answer

(A) 1 only — Correct. Carbon fibres are widely used in automobile and aircraft components for their high strength-to-weight ratio. However, carbon fibre recycling technologies (pyrolysis, solvolysis) do exist, making statement 2 incorrect.

Question 22

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Accepted Answer

(D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct — Correct. Tropical rain forest soils are nutrient-poor despite high biomass productivity because intense leaching removes minerals faster than they can accumulate. Statement-II is correct as warm, humid conditions do accelerate decomposition.

Question 23

'Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (A) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (B) The United Nations Environment Programme (C) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development (D) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Accepted Answer

(A) The International Union for Conservation of Nature — Correct. The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is part of the IUCN Species Survival Commission and maintains the Global Invasive Species Database.

Question 24

By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India? (A) The Regulating Act (B) The Pitt's India Act (C) The Charter Act of 1793 (D) The Charter Act of 1833

Accepted Answer

(D) The Charter Act of 1833 — Correct. The Charter Act of 1833 redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India, with Lord William Bentinck becoming the first to hold this new title. The Act centralised legislative authority in the Governor-General.

Question 25

Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in the Sangam poems? (A) Kings employing women bodyguards (B) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters (C) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals (D) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

Accepted Answer

(D) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death — Correct. Vattakirutal was a heroic but tragic practice in which a defeated king sat facing north and fasted to death. It was considered an honourable way to end one's life after a humiliating military defeat, as described in Sangam Puram poetry.

UPSC Prelims 2023 — solved PYQs

2023 PYQs by subject

Solved questions

Other years

Practise the full 2023 paper

UPSC Prelims 2023 — solved PYQs

2023 PYQs by subject

Solved questions

Other years

Practise the full 2023 paper