UPSC Prelims 2012 — solved PYQs

60 previous year questions from the 2012 UPSC Prelims paper, organised by subject — each solved with option-by-option explanations.

2012 PYQs by subject

Solved questions

A selection of 25 solved questions — sign up free to practise all 60.

Q1EnvironmentClimate Change SciencePYQ 2012

The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs:

  • AThe water vapour of the air and retains its heat
  • BThe ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
  • CAll the solar radiations
  • DThe infrared part of solar radiationCorrect

Explanation

Correct. CO₂ absorbs infrared (long-wave) radiation emitted by the Earth's surface and re-radiates it, trapping heat in the atmosphere — the greenhouse effect.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

CO₂ does not absorb water vapour; it absorbs specific wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation re-emitted from Earth's surface.

Option B

Ultraviolet radiation is primarily absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere, not by CO₂.

Option C

CO₂ absorbs only certain wavelengths, particularly in the infrared range, not the entire solar spectrum.

Q2Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2012

In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? 1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas. 2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce. 3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B1 and 2 onlyCorrect
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. PESA empowers the Gram Sabha to safeguard against land alienation in Scheduled Areas and confers ownership of minor forest produce on the Gram Sabha. The more expansive mining-lease formulation in Statement 3 is not accepted in the answer key.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This is incomplete. Statement 2 is also correct as PESA recognises the Gram Sabha's ownership over minor forest produce.

Option C

Statement 1 is also correct, not only statements 2 and 3. Moreover, Statement 3 is not accepted as correct in the official answer key.

Option D

Statement 3 goes beyond what the accepted answer key recognises. While PESA provides for mandatory consultation before granting mining leases, the answer key does not accept all three statements together.

Q3History & CultureSocio-Religious Reform MovementsPYQ 2012

During the Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

  • ADifferent social reform groups or organisations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government
  • BIndian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purposeCorrect
  • CBehramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organisation
  • DNone of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Explanation

Correct. The Indian National Congress deliberately kept social reform questions out of its political deliberations to maintain unity among diverse groups. M.G. Ranade and others therefore established the National Social Conference as a separate platform to discuss social reform issues, meeting alongside Congress sessions.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The National Social Conference was not a Bengal-specific body nor was it formed by uniting regional organizations. It operated at a national level alongside the Congress.

Option C

While M.G. Ranade was a key figure in the National Social Conference, Behramji Malabari was more associated with the Age of Consent agitation. The reason for formation was the Congress's deliberate exclusion of social reform from its agenda.

Option D

Statement (b) is correct. The Congress's decision to avoid social reform topics necessitated the creation of a separate body.

Q4GeographyRegional Geography of IndiaPYQ 2012

A particular State in India has the following characteristics: [2012] 1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan. 2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover. 3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State. Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

  • AArunachal PradeshCorrect
  • BAssam
  • CHimachal Pradesh
  • DUttarakhand

Explanation

Correct. Arunachal Pradesh lies at approximately 27-29 degrees N latitude (same as northern Rajasthan), has over 80% forest cover, and a significant portion of its forests constitute its Protected Area Network.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Assam lies on similar latitudes but does not have over 80% of its area under forest cover.

Option C

Himachal Pradesh has significant forest cover but not over 80%, and it lies slightly further north than northern Rajasthan latitudes.

Option D

Uttarakhand does not have over 80% forest cover, and its latitude range is slightly different from northern Rajasthan.

Q5Polity & GovernancePost-Independence Governance and India in the WorldPYQ 2012

Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance? 1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking 2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts 3. Increasing the government spending on public health 4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme Choose the correct answer:

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B3 and 4 only
  • C2, 3 and 4 onlyCorrect
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Correct. Inclusive governance emphasizes participatory planning (District Planning Committees), broad-based social provisioning (public health spending), and targeted welfare (Mid-day Meal Scheme). Permitting NBFCs to do banking is a financial-sector regulatory issue, not a governance inclusion measure.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Permitting NBFCs to do banking is a financial-sector regulatory matter, not a core element of inclusive governance.

Option B

While increased public-health spending and the Mid-day Meal Scheme are part of inclusive governance, District Planning Committees are also essential for participatory planning.

Option D

Permitting NBFCs to do banking is a regulatory matter outside the scope of inclusive governance, making this combination incorrect.

Q6History & CultureVedic Age and MahajanapadasPYQ 2012

The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of:

  • ABhakti
  • BImage worship and Yajnas
  • CWorship of nature and YajnasCorrect
  • DWorship of nature and Bhakti

Explanation

Correct. Early Vedic religion centred on the worship of natural forces personified as deities — Indra (thunder/rain), Agni (fire), Varuna (cosmic order), Surya (sun) — and elaborate sacrificial rituals (yajnas) to propitiate them.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Bhakti (personal devotion to a deity) was a much later development that became prominent in the post-Vedic and medieval periods. It was not a feature of early Vedic religion.

Option B

Image worship (idol worship) was absent in the Rig Vedic period. The early Vedic Aryans invoked gods through hymns and fire sacrifices, not through icons or temples.

Option D

While nature worship is correct, Bhakti was not part of early Vedic religion. The dominant mode of worship was through sacrificial rituals (yajnas), not personal devotional practice.

Q7Indian EconomyExternal Sector & TradePYQ 2012

When a foreign company sets up a wholly owned manufacturing subsidiary in India, that inflow is generally treated as:

  • AForeign Direct InvestmentCorrect
  • BWorkers' remittance
  • COfficial reserve transaction
  • DMerchandise export

Explanation

Correct. Establishing a subsidiary reflects direct investment involving ownership and control interest.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Workers' remittances are private transfer receipts from migrants, not corporate investment inflows.

Option C

Official reserve transactions are undertaken by the central bank, not private firms establishing subsidiaries.

Option D

This is investment activity, not export of goods.

Q8History & CultureMusic, Dance, Literature and PhilosophyPYQ 2012

With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct? [2012] 1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdom period. 2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music. 3. Dhrupad alap uses Sanskrit syllables from mantras. Select the correct answer using the codes below:

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 onlyCorrect
  • C1, 2 and 3 only
  • DNone is correct

Explanation

Correct. Dhrupad is strongly associated with devotional and meditative music, and its alap uses syllables (nom-tom syllables) derived from sacred Sanskrit sounds and mantras.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 1 is too narrow and inaccurate — Dhrupad has earlier roots associated with temple traditions and was later developed under the patronage of various courts, not exclusively Rajput kingdoms.

Option C

Statement 1 incorrectly restricts Dhrupad's origin to the Rajput period; its roots go back to temple ritual music predating the Rajput courts.

Option D

Statements 2 and 3 are correct — Dhrupad is devotional and uses Sanskrit syllables in alap.

Q9Indian EconomyPoverty & UnemploymentPYQ 2012

The National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) relies significantly on:

  • ABuilding institutions of the rural poor such as self-help groups and federationsCorrect
  • BReplacing all banks with cooperatives
  • CClosing wage employment programmes
  • DProviding subsidies only to urban enterprises

Explanation

Correct. NRLM places strong emphasis on mobilizing the rural poor into SHGs and federated institutions.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Banks remain integral to financial inclusion efforts under the mission.

Option C

NRLM does not shut down wage programmes.

Option D

Its focus is rural livelihoods, not urban enterprise subsidies.

Q10Polity & GovernanceParliament and State LegislaturesPYQ 2012

In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is:

  • ATo allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importanceCorrect
  • BTo let opposition collect information from ministers
  • CTo allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
  • DTo postpone the proceedings to check inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

Explanation

Correct. An adjournment motion is an extraordinary device available in the Lok Sabha to draw attention to a definite matter of urgent public importance. It requires the support of at least 50 members and, if admitted, interrupts normal business to discuss the matter.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Information from ministers is collected through parliamentary questions during Question Hour and Zero Hour, not through adjournment motions.

Option C

Reduction in demand for grants is achieved through cut motions (policy cut, economy cut, or token cut), which are distinct budgetary devices.

Option D

Postponement of proceedings to manage disorderly behaviour is handled by adjournment of the House by the Speaker, which is different from an adjournment motion.

Q11Polity & GovernanceElections and Political DynamicsPYQ 2012

With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: 1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2Correct
  • DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Correct. Delimitation Commission orders are treated as final and are not ordinarily challengeable in court. Once laid before the legislature, no modifications can be made by the House.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Partially correct but incomplete. Statement 2 is also correct — legislatures cannot modify delimitation orders.

Option B

Partially correct but incomplete. Statement 1 is also correct — delimitation orders enjoy statutory finality.

Option D

Incorrect. Both statements accurately describe the finality of Delimitation Commission orders.

Q12EnvironmentSpecies Status, IUCN and EndemismPYQ 2012

Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?

  • AGreat Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild AssCorrect
  • BKashmir Stag, Cheetah, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
  • CSnow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Sarus Crane
  • DLion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

Explanation

Correct. Great Indian Bustard (Critically Endangered), Musk Deer (Endangered), Red Panda (Endangered) and Asiatic Wild Ass (Near Threatened but protected under Schedule I) are all threatened species.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Blue Bull (Nilgai) is classified as Least Concern by IUCN, so this group does not entirely consist of endangered species.

Option C

Rhesus Monkey is classified as Least Concern, making this group incorrect as a set of endangered species.

Option D

Both Blue Bull and Hanuman Langur are Least Concern, and Cheetal (Spotted Deer) is also Least Concern. This group does not qualify.

Q13Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2012

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on education? 1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Sixth Schedule 5. Seventh Schedule Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B3, 4 and 5 only
  • C1, 2 and 5 only
  • D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5Correct

Explanation

Correct. Education is shaped by Directive Principles, local body responsibilities under the 73rd and 74th Amendments, the Fifth and Sixth Schedule provisions for special tribal area administration, and the Seventh Schedule which places education in the Concurrent List.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This is incomplete. Education is affected by the Fifth Schedule (tribal area governance), Sixth Schedule (autonomous district councils), and Seventh Schedule (education in Concurrent List) as well.

Option B

This is incomplete. Directive Principles (Article 45 on early childhood care, Article 46 on promoting educational interests of weaker sections) and local body provisions (Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules) also bear on education.

Option C

This is incomplete. The Fifth and Sixth Schedules also bear on education through their provisions for tribal area administration and autonomous councils.

Q14Indian EconomyBanking SystemPYQ 2012

The basic aim of the Lead Bank Scheme is that:

  • AA big bank should have branches in every district
  • BThere should be stiff competition among nationalized banks
  • CAn individual bank should take lead responsibility for coordinated district-level developmentCorrect
  • DAll banks should mobilize only household deposits intensively

Explanation

Correct. Under the Lead Bank Scheme, a designated bank coordinates credit planning and banking development in a district.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This is incorrect because The scheme is not merely about geographical presence of one big bank everywhere.

Option B

This is incorrect because Competition was not the scheme's core objective.

Option D

This is incorrect because The scheme is broader than deposit mobilization alone.

Q15History & CultureGandhian Era (1919-1939)PYQ 2012

Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

  • ARound Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
  • BCongress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
  • CRamsay MacDonald announced the Communal AwardCorrect
  • DNone of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Explanation

Correct. Gandhi opposed the Communal Award announced by Ramsay MacDonald, which provided separate electorates for the Depressed Classes. He undertook a fast unto death that eventually led to the Poona Pact.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

While the Round Table Conferences did not fully satisfy Indian aspirations, Gandhi's 1932 fast was specifically triggered by the Communal Award's provision for separate electorates for the Depressed Classes.

Option B

Congress-Muslim League differences were a broader issue. Gandhi's fast was specifically directed against separate electorates for the Depressed Classes, not Hindu-Muslim disagreements.

Option D

Option (c) is the correct answer. The Communal Award was indeed the trigger for Gandhi's epic fast in Yerwada Jail in 1932.

Q16History & CultureGandhian Era (1919-1939)PYQ 2012

The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because: 1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence 2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that session 3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that session Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 onlyCorrect
  • B2 and 3
  • C1 and 3
  • DNone of the above

Explanation

Correct. The Lahore session's defining significance was the formal adoption of Purna Swaraj (complete independence) as the Congress goal. The extremist-moderate split had been addressed much earlier, and no specific two-nation theory resolution was passed here.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

The extremist-moderate rift had been addressed in earlier sessions (notably the Lucknow Pact of 1916), and no specific two-nation theory resolution was passed at Lahore 1929.

Option C

Only statement 1 is correct. The two-nation theory was not a specific subject of resolution at the 1929 session.

Option D

Statement 1 is correct. The Lahore session is historically significant for the Purna Swaraj resolution.

Q17Polity & GovernanceJudiciaryPYQ 2012

Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? 1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States 2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of Parliament or that of Legislature of a State 3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory 4. A dispute between two or more States Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • A1 and 2
  • B2 and 3
  • C1 and 4Correct
  • D3 and 4

Explanation

Correct. Article 131 includes disputes between the Union and States and disputes between two or more States within the Supreme Court's original jurisdiction. Election disputes and Union Territory disputes are not covered under this provision.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 2 is incorrect. Election disputes are not part of the Supreme Court's original jurisdiction under Article 131; they are dealt with through election petitions filed before High Courts.

Option B

Neither Statement 2 nor Statement 3 is correct in the context of original jurisdiction under Article 131.

Option D

Statement 3 is incorrect. Disputes involving Union Territories are not covered under Article 131 original jurisdiction in the manner stated.

Q18Indian EconomyMoney & Capital MarketsPYQ 2012

Which one of the following actions by the central bank directly increases money supply in the economy?

  • ASelling government securities to the public
  • BPurchasing government securities from the publicCorrect
  • CRaising the cash reserve ratio
  • DIncreasing the statutory liquidity ratio

Explanation

Correct. When the central bank buys securities, it injects liquidity into the system and expands money supply.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Selling government securities withdraws liquidity from the banking system.

Option C

A higher CRR locks more funds with the central bank and reduces lendable resources.

Option D

A higher SLR similarly restricts banks' ability to lend freely.

Q19Polity & GovernanceParliament and State LegislaturesPYQ 2012

A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of: 1. Ordinary Legislation 2. Money Bill 3. Constitution Amendment Bill Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • A1 onlyCorrect
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. Article 108 provides for a joint sitting only in the case of ordinary bills when there is a deadlock between the two Houses. Money Bills and Constitution Amendment Bills follow their own separate procedures.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Money Bills cannot go to a joint sitting because the Rajya Sabha's role is merely recommendatory with a 14-day time limit. Constitution Amendment Bills also cannot be referred to a joint sitting as Article 368 requires each House to pass them separately.

Option C

Constitution Amendment Bills cannot be taken to a joint sitting. Article 368 mandates that each House must pass them separately with the required special majority.

Option D

Joint sitting under Article 108 applies only to ordinary legislation, not to Money Bills or Constitution Amendment Bills.

Q20Polity & GovernanceConstitutional BodiesPYQ 2012

According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following? 1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission 2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee 3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General 4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • A1 only
  • B2 and 4 only
  • C1, 3 and 4 onlyCorrect
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Correct. The President is constitutionally required to lay before Parliament: Finance Commission recommendations (Article 281), CAG reports (Article 151), and National Commission for Scheduled Castes reports (Article 338). The PAC report is a parliamentary committee report, not laid by the President.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Incomplete. While the President must lay Finance Commission recommendations before Parliament under Article 281, the Constitution also requires the President to lay CAG reports (Article 151) and NCSC reports (Article 338) before Parliament.

Option B

The Public Accounts Committee is a parliamentary committee whose reports are presented within Parliament. They are not laid before Parliament by the President under a constitutional duty.

Option D

The PAC is a committee of Parliament itself. Its reports are presented to the House by the committee chairman, not laid before Parliament by the President.

Q21Polity & GovernanceImportant Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2012

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? 1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to Life under Article 21 2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1) 3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243A Select the correct answer:

  • A1 onlyCorrect
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Correct. The National Green Tribunal Act derives its constitutional foundation from environmental jurisprudence that recognizes the right to a healthy environment as an integral part of the Right to Life under Article 21. The Supreme Court has consistently interpreted Article 21 to include environmental protection.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Article 275(1) deals with grants-in-aid for tribal welfare in Scheduled Areas and Article 243A relates to Gram Sabha powers. Neither provision forms the constitutional basis for the NGT Act.

Option C

Article 243A pertains to Gram Sabha functions under the Panchayati Raj framework and has no connection to the establishment or mandate of the NGT.

Option D

Only Article 21 provides the constitutional foundation for the NGT Act through environmental right-to-life jurisprudence. The other provisions are unrelated.

Q22History & CultureVisual Arts, Architecture and PaintingPYQ 2012

Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes:

  • ABuddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
  • BBuddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of MaraCorrect
  • CBuddha's reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory
  • DBoth the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

Explanation

Correct. The Bhumisparsha Mudra (earth-touching gesture) refers to the moment of enlightenment when the Buddha touched the earth to call it as witness to his long accumulation of merit and purity in the face of Mara's temptations.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The earth-touching gesture is not about enlisting the Earth to watch over or protect the Buddha from Mara; it is a gesture of bearing witness to his accumulated merit.

Option C

The mudra is not a teaching about the transitory nature of earthly existence. It is specifically linked to the moment of the Buddha's enlightenment and the defeat of Mara.

Option D

Option (a) is not fully accurate, as the gesture is specifically about witnessing merit and purity, not merely about watching over the Buddha to prevent disturbance.

Q23Indian EconomyPoverty & UnemploymentPYQ 2012

ASHA workers under the National Health Mission are expected mainly to:

  • AAct as community-level health facilitators and mobilizersCorrect
  • BPerform major surgeries in villages
  • CFix retail prices of essential drugs
  • DIssue formal medical degrees

Explanation

Correct. ASHA workers serve as community-level link workers for awareness, referral and basic health support.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Major surgery is beyond their role.

Option C

Drug price control is handled elsewhere.

Option D

They do not confer medical degrees.

Q24GeographyIndian Resources and AgriculturePYQ 2012

Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'?

  • ACultivation of both cash crops and food crops
  • BCultivation of two or more crops in the same field
  • CRearing of animals and cultivation of crops togetherCorrect
  • DNone of the above

Explanation

Correct. Mixed farming is defined by the combination of crop cultivation with livestock rearing on the same farm, where both activities contribute significantly to farm income.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Growing both cash and food crops is diversified cropping, not the defining feature of mixed farming.

Option B

Cultivating multiple crops in the same field refers to mixed cropping or intercropping, not mixed farming.

Option D

Option (c) correctly defines mixed farming.

Q25Indian EconomyNational Income AccountingPYQ 2012

Which of the following sectors is NOT included in the eight core industries index of India?

  • ACoal
  • BSteel
  • CTextilesCorrect
  • DCement

Explanation

Correct. Textiles is NOT one of the eight core industries. The eight core industries are: Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement, and Electricity. Together they have a combined weight of about 40.27% in the IIP.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Coal is one of the eight core industries with a weight of 10.33% in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

Option B

Steel is one of the eight core industries with a weight of 17.92% in the IIP.

Option D

Cement is one of the eight core industries with a weight of 5.37% in the IIP.

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