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Q1Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2025
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
Statement II: The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- AStatement I only
- BStatement II only
- CBoth Statement I and Statement II
- DNeither Statement I nor Statement IICorrect
Explanation
Correct. Statement I is incorrect because the State Government does not lose executive power. Statement II is incorrect because the Fifth Schedule does not provide for Union takeover of total administration on gubernatorial recommendation.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Statement I is wrong because declaration of a Scheduled Area does not strip the State Government of its executive power or transfer total administration to a local body. The State retains executive power with some special gubernatorial oversight.
- Option B
Incorrect. Statement II is wrong because while the Fifth Schedule gives the Governor special responsibilities and allows the Union to issue directions to States, it does not create a mechanism for the Union to take over total administration on the Governor's recommendation.
- Option C
Incorrect. Both statements are wrong. The Fifth Schedule provides for special regulatory powers of the Governor and a Tribes Advisory Council, but neither strips the State of executive power nor allows Union takeover of total administration.
Q2Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2025
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
1. List I — Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
2. Extent of the executive power of a State
3. Conditions of the Governor's office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above is ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States required before the bill is presented to the President for assent?
- A1 and 2 onlyCorrect
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. Ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures is required for amendments affecting the Seventh Schedule (which includes the Union List) and the extent of executive power of the States. These are federal provisions requiring broader consent.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Incorrect. Conditions of the Governor's office do not fall within the Article 368 proviso list that mandates State ratification. Item 1 (Seventh Schedule) does require it.
- Option C
Incorrect. Conditions of the Governor's office are not among the provisions requiring State ratification. While item 1 (Seventh Schedule) requires it, item 3 does not.
- Option D
Incorrect. Not all three require State ratification. Conditions of the Governor's office can be amended by the special majority procedure alone without State ratification.
Q3Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2024
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
1. Its provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. It will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. It provides reservation of seats for Scheduled Caste women within the quota reserved for Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1, 2 and 3
- B1 and 2 only
- C2 and 3 onlyCorrect
- D1 and 3 only
Explanation
Correct. The reservation is to remain in force for 15 years (Statement 2), and the 106th Amendment explicitly provides reservation for Scheduled Caste women within the SC quota (Statement 3). Statement 1 is incorrect as the timing depends on delimitation.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong. The reservation does not automatically begin from the 18th Lok Sabha because operationalisation is tied to delimitation after the first census conducted after the commencement of the amendment.
- Option B
Incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong because implementation depends on the completion of delimitation based on a post-commencement census, not a fixed Lok Sabha number.
- Option D
Incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong. The provisions are linked to delimitation after a future census, not to the 18th Lok Sabha specifically.
Q4Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2024
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1, 2 and 3Correct
- B1, 2 and 4
- C1, 3 and 4
- D2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Correct. The 71st Amendment (1992) added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule, raising the number of scheduled languages from 15 to 18.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Incorrect. Maithili was not added by the 71st Amendment. It was included later by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
- Option C
Incorrect. Maithili was added by the 92nd Amendment (2003), not the 71st Amendment (1992).
- Option D
Incorrect. While Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment, Maithili was not. It was added by a later amendment in 2003.
Q5Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2024
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3Correct
Explanation
Correct. Article 368 expressly states that Parliament may amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision, subject to the procedure laid down in that article.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. This omits repeal. Article 368 expressly states that Parliament may amend by addition, variation, or repeal of any provision.
- Option B
Incorrect. This omits addition. The constitutional text explicitly includes all three modes: addition, variation, and repeal.
- Option C
Incorrect. This omits variation. Article 368 uses the complete tripartite formulation of addition, variation, and repeal.
Q6Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2022
Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President, it is obligatory for the President to give assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both Houses by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 onlyCorrect
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. Under Article 368, once a Constitution Amendment Bill is duly passed and presented, the President shall give assent — there is no discretion to withhold it (Statement 2). There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement between the two Houses on such a bill (Statement 3).
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong because a Constitution Amendment Bill does not require prior presidential recommendation. Any member of Parliament can introduce it without executive permission.
- Option C
Incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong. Unlike Money Bills which require presidential recommendation, Constitution Amendment Bills do not require any prior executive recommendation.
- Option D
Incorrect. Statement 1 is factually wrong. A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced by any member of either House of Parliament without the President's prior recommendation.
Q7Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2022
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence?
- AThis would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal peopleCorrect
- BThis would create a local self-governing body in that area
- CThis would convert that area into a Union Territory
- DThe State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State
Explanation
Correct. The Fifth Schedule empowers the Governor to make regulations prohibiting or restricting the transfer of land by or among members of Scheduled Tribes in Scheduled Areas. The primary protective purpose is to prevent alienation of tribal land to non-tribals.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Incorrect. The Fifth Schedule does not automatically create a local self-governing body. It provides for Tribes Advisory Councils and gubernatorial regulation-making power, but the Sixth Schedule is the one that creates autonomous district councils.
- Option C
Incorrect. Declaring an area as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule does not change the administrative status of the area or convert it into a Union Territory. The area remains part of the State.
- Option D
Incorrect. Fifth Schedule status for certain areas does not result in the State being declared a Special Category State. Special Category status is a planning and fiscal concept unrelated to the Fifth Schedule.
Q8Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2019
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
- AThird Schedule
- BFifth ScheduleCorrect
- CNinth Schedule
- DTwelfth Schedule
Explanation
Correct. The Fifth Schedule allows the Governor to make regulations for the peace and good governance of Scheduled Areas, including regulations restricting or prohibiting the transfer of land by or among members of Scheduled Tribes. This is the constitutional basis for declaring such transfers void.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. The Third Schedule contains the forms of oaths and affirmations for various constitutional functionaries. It has no connection with tribal land protection.
- Option C
Incorrect. The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws that are given protection from judicial review on grounds of violation of Fundamental Rights. It does not directly deal with tribal land transfer.
- Option D
Incorrect. The Twelfth Schedule lists subjects that may be entrusted to Municipalities under the 74th Amendment. It has nothing to do with tribal land protection.
Q9Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2019
Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Amendment introduced an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment as violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 onlyCorrect
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. The Supreme Court in the NJAC case (Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India, 2015) struck down the 99th Amendment and the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act as violative of the independence of the judiciary, a part of the basic structure.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Statement 1 is false. The 44th Amendment actually removed the shield around high constitutional election disputes that had been inserted by the 39th Amendment. It restored judicial review, not restricted it.
- Option C
Incorrect. Only Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 confuses the 44th Amendment with the 39th Amendment. The 44th Amendment was a corrective measure, not a restrictive one.
- Option D
Incorrect. Statement 2 is factually correct. The Supreme Court did strike down the 99th Amendment in 2015.
Q10Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2019
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of:
- AJawaharlal NehruCorrect
- BLal Bahadur Shastri
- CIndira Gandhi
- DMorarji Desai
Explanation
Correct. The Ninth Schedule was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, enacted during Jawaharlal Nehru's prime ministership to protect land reform laws from Fundamental Rights challenges.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Incorrect. Lal Bahadur Shastri served as Prime Minister from 1964 to 1966. The Ninth Schedule had already been part of the Constitution since 1951.
- Option C
Incorrect. Indira Gandhi first became Prime Minister in 1966. The Ninth Schedule was introduced fifteen years earlier in 1951 under Nehru.
- Option D
Incorrect. Morarji Desai served as Prime Minister from 1977 to 1979. The Ninth Schedule was introduced more than two decades before his tenure.
Q11Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2018
If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then:
- AThe assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
- BThe powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament.Correct
- CArticle 19 is suspended in that State.
- DThe President can make laws relating to that State.
Explanation
Correct. Under Article 356, the President may declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament. Parliament may delegate this power or exercise it directly.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. The State Legislative Assembly is not automatically dissolved under Article 356. It may be dissolved or kept in suspended animation. The S.R. Bommai case established that dissolution should not precede parliamentary approval.
- Option C
Incorrect. Article 19 is not suspended during President's Rule. Suspension of Article 19 occurs only during a National Emergency proclaimed on grounds of war or external aggression (after the 44th Amendment).
- Option D
Incorrect. The President does not personally make laws for the State. The legislative power of the State is exercised by or under the authority of Parliament, which may delegate it.
Q12Polity & Governance·Emergency Provisions and Amendment ProcessPYQ 2018
Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 onlyCorrect
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. Parliament can place laws in the Ninth Schedule through a constitutional amendment. However, after the Supreme Court's ruling in I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), laws inserted after 24 April 1973 remain subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Incorrect. Statement 2 is wrong because the Supreme Court in I.R. Coelho held that Ninth Schedule laws are not completely immune from judicial review. Laws placed after the Kesavananda Bharati date can be tested against the basic structure doctrine.
- Option C
Incorrect. While Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is wrong. The blanket immunity of Ninth Schedule laws was qualified by the I.R. Coelho judgment.
- Option D
Incorrect. Statement 1 is correct because Parliament does have the power to add laws to the Ninth Schedule through the constitutional amendment process.