Elections and Political Dynamics — UPSC Prelims practice questions

Q: How many Elections and Political Dynamics MCQs are available for UPSC Prelims practice?

PrelimsAI currently has 80+ Elections and Political Dynamics MCQs under Polity & Governance. This page shows 12 sample questions in full.

Q: How many Elections and Political Dynamics previous year questions are included?

20+ questions in this chapter are tagged as UPSC Prelims PYQs. PYQs are prioritised in the visible sample set when available.

Q: Do these Elections and Political Dynamics questions include explanations?

Yes. The 12 visible sample questions show the correct option and explanation on this page.

Q: Where should I go after practising Elections and Political Dynamics?

Continue with Emergency Provisions and Amendment Process or Constitutional Bodies, or return to the Polity & Governance subject page for more chapter-wise practice.

Question 1

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
Statement II: There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

Accepted Answer

(D) Neither I nor II — Correct. Statement I is wrong because the Speaker or Chairman decides defection cases, not the President. Statement II is wrong because the Tenth Schedule expressly uses the term 'political party'.

Question 2

How many Delimitation Commissions had been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four

Accepted Answer

(D) Four — Correct. Delimitation Commissions were set up in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002, making a total of four up to December 2023.

Question 3

With reference to the anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
Statement 2: The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Accepted Answer

(B) 2 only — Correct. Statement 1 is wrong because the Tenth Schedule allows a nominated member to join a party within six months. Statement 2 is correct because the Schedule prescribes no rigid time limit for the presiding officer to decide disqualification petitions.

Question 4

Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: According to the Constitution of India, a person eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he or she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
Statement 2: According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Accepted Answer

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 — Correct. Statement 1 is wrong because Article 164(4) requires qualification to become a member, not merely voter eligibility. Statement 2 is wrong because the disqualification is not permanent — it lasts during imprisonment plus six years after release.

Question 5

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a: (A) Fundamental Right (B) Natural Right (C) Constitutional Right (D) Legal Right

Accepted Answer

(C) Constitutional Right — Correct. The right to vote and to be elected derives from the constitutional framework of adult suffrage under Article 326 and the election provisions. UPSC's official answer key for this question confirmed option (c).

Question 6

Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
Statement 2: Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
Statement 3: Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 only

Accepted Answer

(D) 3 only — Correct. Only Statement 3 is correct. The Commission resolves disputes involving splits and mergers of recognised political parties under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.

Question 7

For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by: (A) Anyone residing in India. (B) A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested. (C) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency. (D) Any citizen of India.

Accepted Answer

(C) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency. — Correct. A candidate for the Lok Sabha must be a citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of any parliamentary constituency, satisfying the statutory qualifications under election law.

Question 8

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? (A) Second Schedule (B) Fifth Schedule (C) Eighth Schedule (D) Tenth Schedule

Accepted Answer

(D) Tenth Schedule — Correct. The anti-defection law is contained in the Tenth Schedule, inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 and later modified by the 91st Amendment Act, 2003.

Question 9

With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Accepted Answer

(C) Both 1 and 2 — Correct. Delimitation Commission orders are treated as final and are not ordinarily challengeable in court. Once laid before the legislature, no modifications can be made by the House.

Question 10

Which one of the following is the largest area-wise Lok Sabha constituency? (A) Kangra (B) Ladakh (C) Kachchh (D) Bhilwara

Accepted Answer

(B) Ladakh — Correct. Ladakh is the largest Lok Sabha constituency by geographical area, spanning the vast high-altitude region of the former state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 11

Consider the following tasks:
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and the offices of the President and Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols
4. Proclamation of final verdict in election disputes
Which of the above are functions of the Election Commission of India? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4

Accepted Answer

(A) 1, 2 and 3 — Correct. The Election Commission supervises elections under Article 324, prepares electoral rolls, and administers party recognition and symbol allotment. Election disputes are decided by courts, not the EC.

Question 12

Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes office or till he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
Which of these statements are correct? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4

Accepted Answer

(B) 2 and 3 — Correct. The CEC is entitled to salary equivalent to a Supreme Court judge, and enjoys removal protection similar to a Supreme Court judge under Article 324(5).

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