Polity & Governance chapter practice

Federalism and Local Governance MCQs

Practise 82+ Federalism and Local Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims in Polity & Governance, including 30+ previous year questions. The sample set below is shown with correct answers and explanations.

82
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30
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12
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Sample Federalism and Local Governance questions

12 sample questions are shown here; sign up free to practise all 82.

Q1Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2026

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India: 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes. 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

  • AThere are two correct statements, that include statement 2.Correct
  • BThere are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
  • CThere is only one correct statement.
  • DAll three statements are correct.

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (A), Series A question 57. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Schedule III, item 19, read with section 11 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 excludes specified income of eligible Scheduled Tribe members; this is not a blanket exemption for all tribal people or income. Article 243D reserves a portion of SC/ST Panchayat seats for women. Statement 1 should say Sixth Schedule, not Fifth Schedule.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · India Code: Constitution of India, Articles 13, 243D, 244 and 393–395 · TRIFED: Tribal areas under the Sixth Schedule · Kerala local government law manual: Article 243D(2) · Income Tax Department: Income-tax Act, 2025, section 11 and Schedule III item 19

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Statement 3 is correct, but statement 1 assigns the four named states to the wrong schedule. Article 244 connects Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram’s tribal areas with the Sixth Schedule; the Fifth Schedule is the other scheduled-area framework.

Option C

Two statements, not one, are correct. There are qualified tax exemptions for specified Scheduled Tribe members and constitutional reservation for SC/ST women in Panchayats, while the Fifth/Sixth Schedule substitution makes statement 1 false.

Option D

Statement 1 prevents all three from being correct. The crucial distinction is the Sixth Schedule’s arrangements for tribal areas in the four named states; statements 2 and 3 separately concern qualified tax relief and political representation.

Q2Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2026

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct? 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026. 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals. 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories. Select the answer using the code given below:

  • A1 and 2
  • B2 onlyCorrect
  • C1 and 3
  • D2 and 3

Explanation

UPSC provisional key: (B), Series A question 74. Only statement 2 is correct: the revamped RGSA strengthens Panchayati Raj Institutions to pursue the Sustainable Development Goals. Its approved period began on 1 April 2022; state-component funding is generally shared 60:40, with 90:10 for specified northeastern/hill jurisdictions and J&K, rather than universal 100% central financing.

Sources: UPSC provisional answer key · Cabinet approval of revamped RGSA, 13 April 2022

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

The governance-capacity objective is correct, but the stated commencement year is wrong. The revamped scheme was approved for 1 April 2022–31 March 2026, rather than beginning on 1 April 2021.

Option C

Both statements included here are incorrect. The revamped period starts in 2022, and central funding varies by component and jurisdiction instead of covering the entire cost for every state and Union Territory.

Option D

Statement 2 correctly describes the programme’s purpose, but statement 3 overgeneralises the full central funding applicable to central components and Union Territories other than J&K. For ordinary state components, the scheme uses Centre–state cost sharing.

Q3Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2025

With reference to India, consider the following: I. Inter-State Council II. National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

  • AOnly oneCorrect
  • BOnly two
  • CAll the three
  • DNone

Explanation

Correct. Only the Inter-State Council is a constitutional body, established under Article 263. The National Security Council is an executive body created by a government order, and Zonal Councils were created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Only one of the three is a constitutional body. The National Security Council is not mentioned in the Constitution, and Zonal Councils derive from a statute, not the Constitution.

Option C

All three were not established by the Constitution. Only the Inter-State Council has a direct constitutional basis under Article 263.

Option D

This is incorrect because the Inter-State Council is specifically provided for under Article 263 of the Constitution, making at least one of the three a constitutional creation.

Q4Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2025

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. Statement II: To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. Statement III: The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats and to make recommendations regarding distribution of State taxes and duties between the State and Panchayats.

  • AI and II only
  • BII and III only
  • CI and III only
  • DI, II and IIICorrect

Explanation

Correct per the official answer key. However, constitutionally: intermediate-level Panchayats are not mandatory in States with populations below 20 lakh; the minimum age is 21 years not 30; and the State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor, not the Chief Minister. The PYQ answer key uses (d) as the correct option.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

This selects only two statements, but the accepted answer key marks all three statements as the answer. The question tests whether candidates can identify that none of the three statements is constitutionally accurate.

Option B

This selects only two statements. The accepted answer key for this PYQ is option (d), though all three statements contain inaccuracies in constitutional terms.

Option C

This selects only two statements. The accepted answer is (d) per the official key.

Q5Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2024

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

  • AInter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List
  • BInter-State migration is a State subject under the State List
  • CInter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union ListCorrect
  • DCorporation tax is a State subject under the State List

Explanation

Correct. Seventh Schedule, List I (Union List), Entry 81 covers both inter-State migration and inter-State quarantine. Inter-State quarantine is therefore a Union subject.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Inter-State trade and commerce is a Union subject under Entry 42 of the Union List, not a State subject. Parliament has exclusive competence to regulate trade across State boundaries.

Option B

Inter-State migration is listed in the Union List (Entry 81). It is not a State subject because migration across State boundaries requires uniform central regulation.

Option D

Corporation tax is a Union subject under the Union List (Entry 85). It is levied and collected by the Centre, not by the States.

Q6Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2021

Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

  • AIndependence of the judiciary is safeguardedCorrect
  • BThe Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units
  • CThe Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
  • DFundamental Rights are enforceable by courts of law

Explanation

Correct. An independent judiciary is an essential federal feature because a federal Constitution requires an impartial umpire to interpret the Constitution, resolve Centre-State disputes, and maintain the constitutional distribution of powers.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

Having elected representatives from constituent units in the Union legislature may exist in federal and some unitary systems alike. It is not a uniquely distinguishing federal characteristic.

Option C

Regional party representation in the Cabinet is a product of coalition politics and is not an essential structural feature of federalism.

Option D

Enforceable fundamental rights exist in both federal and unitary constitutions. They are a feature of constitutional governance, not specifically of federal character.

Q7Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2017

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

  • AThere is an independent judiciary in India.
  • BPowers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
  • CThe federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
  • DIt is the result of an agreement among the federating units.Correct

Explanation

Correct. Unlike the United States, the Indian federation was not created by a compact or agreement among sovereign constituent units. It was constitutionally created from the top down, with the Union creating the States rather than States coming together to form the Union.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

An independent judiciary is indeed a feature of Indian federalism. It acts as the arbiter of Centre-State disputes and guardian of the constitutional division of powers.

Option B

The Seventh Schedule with its three lists (Union, State, and Concurrent) clearly divides legislative powers between the Centre and States. This is a core federal feature.

Option C

Unequal representation of States in the Rajya Sabha reflects India's distinctive federal design where representation is based on population, not equal representation of all units.

Q8Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2017

Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in:

  • AFederalism
  • BDemocratic decentralisationCorrect
  • CAdministrative delegation
  • DDirect democracy

Explanation

Correct. Local self-government involves the transfer of authority and representative decision-making to elected bodies at the local level, which is the essence of democratic decentralisation as envisaged by the 73rd and 74th Amendments.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

While local self-government operates within a federal framework, federalism primarily describes the division of powers between the Centre and States, not the specific character of local governance.

Option C

Administrative delegation involves merely delegating executive functions to subordinate officials. Local self-government goes further by creating elected representative institutions with constitutional backing.

Option D

Direct democracy involves citizens directly making policy decisions. Local self-government operates through elected representatives, making it a form of representative democracy at the grassroots, not direct democracy.

Q9Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2016

Consider the following statements: Statement 1: The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years. Statement 2: A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A1 only
  • B2 onlyCorrect
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Correct. Statement 1 is wrong because the minimum age is 21 years, not 25. Statement 2 is correct because Article 243E(4) provides that a Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder of the original five-year term.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Statement 1 is incorrect. The minimum age to contest a Panchayat election is 21 years under Article 243F(a), not 25 years.

Option C

Statement 1 is factually wrong. The Constitution prescribes 21 years, not 25 years, as the minimum age for Panchayat membership.

Option D

Statement 2 is correct. A reconstituted Panchayat serves only the remainder of the unexpired term, making this option incorrect.

Q10Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2015

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to:

  • AProtect the interests of Scheduled TribesCorrect
  • BDetermine the boundaries between States
  • CDetermine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
  • DProtect the interests of all the border States

Explanation

Correct. The Fifth and Sixth Schedules create special administrative arrangements for tribal areas and tribal populations, especially Scheduled Tribes. The Fifth Schedule covers Scheduled Areas in most States, while the Sixth Schedule covers autonomous tribal regions in the northeastern States.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option B

State boundaries are determined under provisions such as Article 3 and the States Reorganisation Act, not through the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.

Option C

The powers and responsibilities of Panchayats are dealt with under Part IX of the Constitution (Articles 243 to 243O) and the Eleventh Schedule, not the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.

Option D

These Schedules are not about protecting border States. They specifically address the governance and protection of tribal communities in designated areas.

Q11Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2015

The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? 1. People's participation in development 2. Political accountability 3. Democratic decentralization 4. Financial mobilization Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • A1, 2 and 3 only
  • B2 and 4 only
  • C1 and 3 onlyCorrect
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Correct. The Panchayati Raj system is fundamentally designed to ensure people's participation in development and democratic decentralization. These are the twin pillars underlying the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Political accountability, while a consequence of elected local bodies, is not framed as the fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system in the constitutional scheme.

Option B

Neither political accountability as a standalone objective nor financial mobilization captures the core constitutional purpose of Panchayati Raj.

Option D

Financial mobilization is not a defining objective of the Panchayati Raj system. While Panchayats may levy certain taxes, their fundamental purpose is participatory governance and decentralisation.

Q12Polity & GovernanceFederalism and Local GovernancePYQ 2013

The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties:

  • AWith the consent of all the States
  • BWith the consent of the majority of States
  • CWith the consent of the States concerned
  • DWithout the consent of any StatesCorrect

Explanation

Correct. Article 253 empowers Parliament to legislate for implementing treaties, agreements, or international decisions even on matters otherwise in the State List, without needing any State consent. This was repeated as a PYQ in both 2000 and 2013.

Why the other options are incorrect
Option A

Article 253 does not require unanimous consent from States. The provision specifically allows Parliament to override the normal federal division for treaty implementation.

Option B

No majority-consent requirement exists. Parliament's treaty-implementation power under Article 253 is not conditional on any form of State consent.

Option C

Even the concerned States need not consent. This is a deliberate constitutional design to ensure India can honour its international obligations without being impeded by the federal distribution of powers.

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How many Federalism and Local Governance MCQs are available for UPSC Prelims practice?
PrelimsAI currently has 82+ Federalism and Local Governance MCQs under Polity & Governance. This page shows 12 sample questions in full.
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30+ questions in this chapter are tagged as UPSC Prelims PYQs. PYQs are prioritised in the visible sample set when available.
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Yes. The 12 visible sample questions show the correct option and explanation on this page.
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Continue with Judiciary or Emergency Provisions and Amendment Process, or return to the Polity & Governance subject page for more chapter-wise practice.

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