Constitutional Bodies — UPSC Prelims practice questions

Q: How many Constitutional Bodies MCQs are available for UPSC Prelims practice?

PrelimsAI currently has 75+ Constitutional Bodies MCQs under Polity & Governance. This page shows 12 sample questions in full.

Q: How many Constitutional Bodies previous year questions are included?

14+ questions in this chapter are tagged as UPSC Prelims PYQs. PYQs are prioritised in the visible sample set when available.

Q: Do these Constitutional Bodies questions include explanations?

Yes. The 12 visible sample questions show the correct option and explanation on this page.

Q: Where should I go after practising Constitutional Bodies?

Continue with Elections and Political Dynamics or Non-Constitutional Bodies, or return to the Polity & Governance subject page for more chapter-wise practice.

Question 1

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
Statement I: It recommended grants of Rs. 4,800 crores from 2022-23 to 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
Statement II: Forty-five percent of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
Statement III: Rs. 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
Statement IV: It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. (A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) II, III and IV

Accepted Answer

(C) I, III and IV — Correct. The 15th FC recommended education-outcome grants, performance-based incentives for agricultural reforms, and reintroduced the tax effort criterion. Statement II is wrong because the recommended share was 41 percent, not 45 percent.

Question 2

Consider the following organizations or bodies in India:
1. National Commission for Backward Classes
2. National Human Rights Commission
3. Law Commission
4. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) Only three (D) All four

Accepted Answer

(A) Only one — Correct. Only the National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body, established under Article 338B inserted by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018. The other three are statutory or executive bodies.

Question 3

Consider the following:
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts
For horizontal tax devolution, how many of the above did the Fifteenth Finance Commission use as criteria other than population, area and income distance? (A) Only two (B) Only three (C) Only four (D) All five

Accepted Answer

(B) Only three — Correct. The Fifteenth Finance Commission used three additional criteria for horizontal devolution: demographic performance (12.5%), forest and ecology (10%), and tax and fiscal efforts (2.5%). It did not use governance reforms or stable government as criteria.

Question 4

Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in meetings of Parliament.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General submits resignation when the Government that appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Accepted Answer

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 — Correct. Statement 1 is wrong because only the Attorney General, not the Solicitor General, has a constitutional right to participate in Parliament under Article 88. Statement 2 is wrong because the Constitution does not mandate resignation of the AG when the government changes; the AG holds office during the pleasure of the President.

Question 5

With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
2. It made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Accepted Answer

(A) 1 only — Correct. The 14th Finance Commission under Y.V. Reddy made a historic increase in the States' share of the divisible pool to 42 percent from the previous 32 percent. It deliberately moved away from tied sector-specific grants.

Question 6

Consider the following statements:
Attorney General of India can:
1. Take part in the proceedings of Lok Sabha
2. Be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. Speak in the Lok Sabha
4. Vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 only

Accepted Answer

(C) 1, 2 and 3 — Correct. Under Article 88, the Attorney General has the right to speak in and take part in proceedings of either House and any joint sitting, and to be a member of any parliamentary committee. However, he has no right to vote.

Question 7

According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Accepted Answer

(C) 1, 3 and 4 only — Correct. The President is constitutionally required to lay before Parliament: Finance Commission recommendations (Article 281), CAG reports (Article 151), and National Commission for Scheduled Castes reports (Article 338). The PAC report is a parliamentary committee report, not laid by the President.

Question 8

In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency or financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1, 3 and 4 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Accepted Answer

(C) 2 and 3 only — Correct. The CAG's performance audit reports are examined by the Public Accounts Committee (Statement 2), and the information in CAG reports can provide the evidentiary basis for investigating agencies to take action (Statement 3). The CAG does not exercise exchequer control or possess judicial powers.

Question 9

Who among the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament? (A) The President of India (B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (C) The Prime Minister of India (D) The Union Finance Minister

Accepted Answer

(A) The President of India — Correct. Article 281 mandates that the President shall cause every recommendation of the Finance Commission, together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon, to be laid before each House of Parliament.

Question 10

Which one of the following authorities makes recommendations to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State? (A) District Planning Committees (B) State Finance Commission (C) Finance Ministry of that State (D) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State

Accepted Answer

(B) State Finance Commission — Correct. Article 243I provides for a State Finance Commission to review the financial position of Panchayats and recommend to the Governor the principles governing the distribution, assignment, and appropriation of taxes, duties, tolls, and fees.

Question 11

Which one among the following commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India? (A) University Grants Commission (B) National Human Rights Commission (C) Election Commission (D) Central Vigilance Commission

Accepted Answer

(C) Election Commission — Correct. The Election Commission is established under Article 324 of the Constitution, which provides for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections by the Election Commission.

Question 12

Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? (A) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India (B) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts (C) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts (D) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer

Accepted Answer

(D) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer — Correct. Unlike the British Comptroller and Auditor General, the Indian CAG does not control the receipt and issue of public money. In India, this exchequer control function does not vest in the CAG; the CAG's role is limited to post-expenditure audit and reporting.

Constitutional Bodies MCQs

Sample Constitutional Bodies questions

Continue chapter practice

More UPSC Prelims practice

Frequently asked questions

Practise all Constitutional Bodies questions