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Q1Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the ConstitutionPYQ 2024
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IXA of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3Correct
Explanation
Correct. Part IXA deals with Municipalities (added by the 74th Amendment), Part XVIII covers Emergency Provisions, and Part XX contains Article 368 relating to the amendment of the Constitution. All three statements correctly identify the relevant Parts.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incomplete. Statement 3 is also correct. Part XX of the Constitution contains Article 368 dealing with the power and procedure to amend the Constitution.
- Option B
Incomplete. Statement 1 is also correct. Part IXA (Articles 243P to 243ZG) was added by the 74th Amendment Act and deals with Municipalities.
- Option C
Incomplete. Statement 2 is also correct. Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360) covers Emergency Provisions including National Emergency, State Emergency, and Financial Emergency.
Q2Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the ConstitutionPYQ 2021
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. Only a citizen by birth can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 onlyCorrect
- B2 only
- C1 and 3
- D2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. India follows the principle of single citizenship and single domicile. Unlike federal countries such as the USA, there is no separate State citizenship in India.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Statement 2 is false. The Constitution does not require the President to be a citizen by birth. Any citizen of India who meets the qualifications under Article 58 can become President.
- Option C
Statement 3 is false. Under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act 1955, citizenship obtained by registration or naturalisation can be terminated or deprived on specified grounds such as fraud, disloyalty, or unlawful trading with the enemy.
- Option D
Both statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Birth citizenship is not a prerequisite for becoming President, and acquired citizenship can be revoked under the Citizenship Act.
Q3Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the ConstitutionPYQ 2021
What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26 January 1950?
- AA Democratic Republic
- BA Sovereign Democratic RepublicCorrect
- CA Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
- DA Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Explanation
Correct. On 26 January 1950, when the Constitution commenced, the Preamble described India as a 'Sovereign Democratic Republic.' The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added later by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. The original Preamble described India as a 'Sovereign Democratic Republic', not merely a 'Democratic Republic'. The word 'Sovereign' was present from the very beginning.
- Option C
Incorrect. The word 'Secular' was not part of the original Preamble. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
- Option D
Incorrect. Both 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were absent from the original Preamble and were added only through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Q4Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the ConstitutionPYQ 2020
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India defines its 'basic structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for judicial review to safeguard citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2Correct
Explanation
Correct. The 'basic structure' is a judicial doctrine, not a constitutional definition, so Statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 overstates what the Constitution expressly provides about judicial review; the power is inferred from Articles 13, 32, 226 and the general constitutional scheme rather than stated in the broad terms described.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Statement 1 is false. The Constitution nowhere defines a 'basic structure'; that doctrine was judicially evolved by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
- Option B
Incorrect. Statement 2 was not accepted as correct in the official answer key because the Constitution does not explicitly state judicial review in the broad justificatory terms described here. Judicial review is inferred from the constitutional scheme and specific articles.
- Option C
Incorrect. Both statements are treated as incorrect. The Constitution does not define 'basic structure', and the specific framing of judicial review in Statement 2 goes beyond what the Constitution expressly provides.
Q5Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the ConstitutionPYQ 2020
The Preamble to the Constitution of India is:
- AA part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
- BNot a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
- CA part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
- DA part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other partsCorrect
Explanation
Correct. The Preamble is part of the Constitution as recognised in the Kesavananda Bharati case, but it is not independently enforceable. It aids in the interpretation of other constitutional provisions rather than functioning as a standalone source of directly enforceable rights.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. While the Preamble is part of the Constitution, this option wrongly says it has 'no legal effect' at all. The Preamble does have legal effect as an aid to interpretation of constitutional provisions.
- Option B
Incorrect. The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution. This overruled the earlier position in Berubari Union case.
- Option C
Incorrect. The Preamble is not independently enforceable in the same manner as operative provisions. It cannot be the sole basis for challenging a law; it serves as an interpretive guide.
Q6Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the ConstitutionPYQ 2017
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
- ALiberty of thought
- BEconomic libertyCorrect
- CLiberty of expression
- DLiberty of belief
Explanation
Correct. The Preamble does not contain the phrase 'economic liberty.' It secures liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. While social and economic justice are mentioned, 'economic liberty' as a specific term is absent from the Preamble.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Liberty of thought is explicitly mentioned in the Preamble, which secures to all citizens 'liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.'
- Option C
Incorrect. Liberty of expression is explicitly secured in the Preamble alongside liberty of thought, belief, faith and worship.
- Option D
Incorrect. Liberty of belief is part of the Preamble's guarantee of liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
Q7Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the ConstitutionPYQ 2013
Economic justice as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in:
- AThe Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
- BThe Preamble and the Directive Principles of State PolicyCorrect
- CThe Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
- DNone of the above
Explanation
Correct. The Preamble promises 'justice, social, economic and political' to all citizens. The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) flesh out the socio-economic obligations of the State, including provisions for adequate livelihood, equal pay, and distribution of resources.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. While the Preamble does mention justice including its economic dimension, Fundamental Rights are primarily about civil and political liberties rather than programmatic economic justice.
- Option C
Incorrect. Fundamental Rights do not expressly frame economic justice as a programme. The Preamble and DPSPs are the two parts that directly embody economic justice as a constitutional objective.
- Option D
Incorrect. Economic justice is clearly embodied in the Preamble (justice — social, economic and political) and in the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Q8Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the ConstitutionPYQ 2005
Consider the following statements:
1. Articles 371A to 371I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America envisage a dual polity but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalised citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- A1, 2 and 3
- B1 and 3
- C3 only
- D1 onlyCorrect
Explanation
Correct. Articles 371A to 371I were indeed inserted to address region-specific demands of the listed States. Statement 2 is wrong because the US has dual citizenship (federal and State), and Statement 3 is wrong because a naturalised citizen can be deprived of citizenship under the Citizenship Act.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Statements 2 and 3 are false. The United States has dual citizenship at the federal and State level, unlike India which has single citizenship. A naturalised citizen can be deprived of citizenship under the Citizenship Act 1955.
- Option B
Statement 3 is false. Under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act 1955, a naturalised citizen may be deprived of citizenship on grounds such as fraud in obtaining it, disloyalty, or trading with the enemy during war.
- Option C
Statement 3 is false. The Citizenship Act 1955 provides specific grounds on which a naturalised citizen can be deprived of Indian citizenship.
Q9Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the ConstitutionPYQ 2001
If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
- AFirstCorrect
- BSecond
- CThird
- DFifth
Explanation
Correct. The First Schedule lists all the States and Union Territories along with their territorial extent. Creating a new State necessarily requires amending this Schedule to include the new entity.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
The Second Schedule deals with provisions relating to emoluments, allowances, privileges of the President, Governors, Speaker, Judges, and the Comptroller and Auditor-General. It has nothing to do with the creation of new States.
- Option C
The Third Schedule contains the forms of oaths or affirmations for various constitutional offices. It is unrelated to the formation of new States.
- Option D
The Fifth Schedule contains provisions relating to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. It does not deal with the creation of new States.
Q10Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the Constitution
Which of the following statements about Article 10 of the Constitution is correct?
- AIt grants permanent citizenship to persons born in India
- BIt provides that every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen shall continue to be such, subject to any law made by ParliamentCorrect
- CIt bars Parliament from making any law terminating citizenship once acquired
- DIt automatically grants citizenship to children born to Indian citizens abroad
Explanation
Correct. Article 10 states that every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India under any of the foregoing provisions of Part II shall, subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament, continue to be such citizen. This enables Parliament to regulate citizenship through legislation.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Article 10 does not grant permanent citizenship. It provides for continuance of citizenship subject to Parliamentary law.
- Option C
Incorrect. Article 10 expressly makes the continuance of citizenship subject to any law made by Parliament, thereby enabling Parliament to prescribe conditions for termination.
- Option D
Incorrect. Article 10 does not deal with citizenship by descent for children born abroad. That is governed by Section 4 of the Citizenship Act 1955.
Q11Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the Constitution
Andhra Pradesh was the first State created on a linguistic basis in 1953, carved out of:
- AMadras PresidencyCorrect
- BHyderabad State
- CBombay Presidency
- DCentral Provinces and Berar
Explanation
Correct. Andhra Pradesh was carved out of the Madras State (formerly Madras Presidency) in 1953 as the first linguistically reorganised State, following the death of Potti Sriramulu during his fast demanding a separate Telugu-speaking State.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Incorrect. Hyderabad State was a separate princely State. Parts of Hyderabad were later merged with Andhra Pradesh in 1956 during the general reorganisation, but the original creation in 1953 was from Madras.
- Option C
Incorrect. The Bombay Presidency was later split into Maharashtra and Gujarat in 1960. It was not the source of the original Andhra State.
- Option D
Incorrect. Central Provinces and Berar became Madhya Pradesh. It was not the source of Andhra Pradesh.
Q12Polity & Governance·Philosophy of the Constitution
Under Article 7 of the Constitution, a person who migrated from India to Pakistan after 1 March 1947:
- ARetained Indian citizenship automatically
- BWas not to be deemed a citizen of India, unless they returned with a permit for resettlementCorrect
- CCould claim dual citizenship of India and Pakistan
- DLost citizenship permanently with no possibility of return
Explanation
Correct. Article 7 states that a person who migrated to Pakistan after 1 March 1947 would not be deemed an Indian citizen. However, if such a person returned to India under a permit for resettlement or permanent return, they could be registered as a citizen under Article 6.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Article 7 explicitly provides that such a person shall not be deemed a citizen of India. Migration to Pakistan was treated as a voluntary renunciation of the connection with India.
- Option C
Incorrect. The Indian Constitution does not recognise dual citizenship. A person who migrated to Pakistan was not considered an Indian citizen.
- Option D
Incorrect. While Article 7 removed their citizenship, there was a proviso: if they returned to India under a permit for resettlement, they could regain citizenship through the registration process under Article 6.