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Q1Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2026
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- A1, 2 and 3
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 only
- D2 onlyCorrect
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect. BNSS section 173 concerns information about cognizable offences regardless of where they occurred; non-cognizable information has a separate procedure under section 174. Information need not be electronic, since oral information is also expressly permitted.
- Option B
The key accepts statement 2, but statement 3 wrongly makes electronic reporting compulsory. Section 173 permits oral or electronic information; when electronic communication is used, the informant must sign within three days for it to be taken on record.
- Option C
Statement 1 wrongly combines cognizable and non-cognizable offences. Territorial neutrality for recording a cognizable offence does not erase the separate legal treatment of non-cognizable information. The fact that a station is outside the place of occurrence is not itself a reason to refuse cognizable information.
Q2Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2026
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?
1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
Select the answer using the code given below:
- A1 and 2
- B2 onlyCorrect
- C1 and 3
- D1 only
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 2 correctly identifies the campaign’s three accessibility domains, but statement 1 gives the wrong enactment year. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act is the 2016 Act, so an otherwise plausible description of its protections does not make the whole statement correct.
- Option C
Both selected statements contain factual errors. Statement 1 misdates the Act, while statement 3 confuses incorporation under company law with the ministry responsible for the corporation. A company-law framework does not imply administrative control by the Corporate Affairs Ministry.
- Option D
Statement 1 is invalid because the Act was enacted in 2016, not 2018. This is a date trap: the broadly correct references to reservation, accessibility and non-discrimination do not cure the incorrect year.
Q3Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2023
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on international borders or coastal areas, Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly twoCorrect
- CAll three
- DNone
Explanation
Correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because Home Guards are organized primarily under State-level laws and rules, not under a single Central Home Guards Act. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Home Guards function as an auxiliary to the police for internal security, and Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States for border and coastal vigilance.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Two statements are correct, not just one.
- Option C
Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no single Central Home Guards Act; different States have their own statutory frameworks for raising and governing Home Guards.
- Option D
Statements 2 and 3 are factually correct regarding the auxiliary role of Home Guards and the existence of Border Wing Battalions.
Q4Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2023
Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
- BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
- CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correctCorrect
Explanation
Correct. The Flag Code of India, 2002 prescribes a 3:2 length-to-width ratio (Statement II is correct). However, 600 mm x 400 mm is not listed among the approved standard sizes in the Flag Code, making Statement I incorrect despite maintaining the correct ratio.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement I is incorrect because 600 mm x 400 mm is not one of the approved standard sizes listed in the Flag Code, even though the ratio 600:400 simplifies to 3:2.
- Option B
Statement I is incorrect. The Flag Code's notified standard-size table does not include 600 mm x 400 mm as an approved dimension.
- Option C
Statement II is correct, not incorrect. The Flag Code of India prescribes a 3:2 length-to-width ratio for the National Flag.
Q5Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2023
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
Statement 2: The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person held under preventive detention.
Statement 3: According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly twoCorrect
- CAll three
- DNone
Explanation
Correct. Statement 1 is correct because Article 355 imposes a duty on the Union to protect States against internal disturbance. Statement 2 is correct because Article 22 carves preventive detention out of general arrest safeguards, including the right to legal counsel. Statement 3 is incorrect because POTA did allow certain police confessions to be admissible as evidence, subject to procedural safeguards.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Two statements are correct, not just one.
- Option C
Statement 3 is incorrect. POTA contained a controversial provision allowing confessions made before police officers of specified rank to be admissible as evidence, unlike the general rule under the Indian Evidence Act.
- Option D
Statements 1 and 2 are both correct based on Articles 355 and 22 respectively.
Q6Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2023
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, prisons are managed by State governments with their own rules and regulations for day-to-day prison administration.
Statement II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement ICorrect
- BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
- CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Explanation
Correct. Prison administration is handled by State Governments because prisons are in the State List (Entry 4) of the Seventh Schedule. The Prisons Act, 1894 reflected this provincial/state control over prison administration, so Statement II correctly explains the administrative arrangement described in Statement I.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Statement II does explain Statement I because the historical legislative framework under the Prisons Act, 1894 is directly related to why States manage prisons with their own rules.
- Option C
Statement II is correct. The Prisons Act, 1894 was designed to operate through provincial governments, which corresponds to State governments post-independence.
- Option D
Statement I is correct. State Governments do manage prisons with their own rules and regulations.
Q7Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2023
With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Action — Act under which it is covered
1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms — Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer engaged in duties — Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire endangering personal safety — Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- AOnly one
- BOnly twoCorrect
- CAll three
- DNone
Explanation
Correct. Pair 1 is correctly matched because Section 6 of the Official Secrets Act, 1923 prohibits unauthorized use of police or military uniforms. Pair 3 is correctly matched because the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 specifically addressed celebratory gunfire endangering public safety. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched because the Indian Evidence Act deals with admissibility of evidence, not the offence of interfering with officers.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Two pairs are correctly matched, not just one.
- Option C
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is a procedural law on evidence and does not create the offence of misleading or interfering with police or military officers on duty.
- Option D
Two pairs are correctly matched: the Official Secrets Act covers unauthorized wearing of uniforms, and the Arms (Amendment) Act covers celebratory gunfire.
Q8Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2021
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 onlyCorrect
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. During judicial custody, the accused is lodged in jail, and the investigating officer must obtain the court's permission to interrogate the suspect. This safeguard protects the accused from coercive police action.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is incorrect because a person in judicial custody is kept in jail under the control of the court, not in a police station. Police lock-up is associated with police custody, not judicial custody.
- Option C
Statement 1 is factually wrong. Judicial custody means the accused is sent to jail, not a police station.
- Option D
Statement 2 is correct. The requirement for court approval before police interrogation during judicial custody is an established procedural safeguard under criminal law.
Q9Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2021
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied because it becomes a matter of right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 onlyCorrect
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. States frame their own parole rules and prison administration rules since prisons are a State subject under the Seventh Schedule. Parole remains a discretionary grant, not an absolute right.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is incorrect. Parole is not an absolute or automatic right even when a prisoner makes out a case. It may be denied on legally sustainable grounds such as threat to public safety, pending investigation, or prison discipline considerations.
- Option C
Statement 1 is incorrect because parole is a matter of discretion, not an enforceable right, even when a prima facie case is established.
- Option D
Statement 2 is correct. Since prisons fall under the State List, each State Government has its own rules governing the release of prisoners on parole.
Q10Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2021
At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
- AMinistry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- BMinistry of Panchayati Raj
- CMinistry of Rural Development
- DMinistry of Tribal AffairsCorrect
Explanation
Correct. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry for the effective implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006, as the law primarily concerns recognition of forest rights of Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change deals with forest conservation and wildlife, but the nodal responsibility for implementing the FRA lies elsewhere because the Act primarily concerns tribal forest rights.
- Option B
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj deals with Panchayati Raj institutions and local governance but is not the nodal ministry for FRA implementation.
- Option C
The Ministry of Rural Development handles rural infrastructure and livelihood programmes but does not have nodal responsibility for the Forest Rights Act.
Q11Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2020
Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. States cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 4 only
- B2 and 4 onlyCorrect
- C3 only
- D1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Correct. Under the Aadhaar framework, States cannot share Aadhaar data with private corporations, and Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act allows Aadhaar to be required for receipt of benefits and subsidies funded from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Aadhaar Act's metadata retention provisions are more nuanced than a blanket three-month limit as stated.
- Option C
Statement 3 is incorrect. Following the Supreme Court's judgment in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2018), Aadhaar cannot be mandated by private entities including insurance companies.
- Option D
Statement 1 is not correct in the form stated. The Aadhaar metadata storage rules have specific provisions that do not simply impose a three-month blanket restriction.
Q12Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2019
Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell bamboos grown in forest areas.
2. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 onlyCorrect
- C3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 includes bamboo in the definition of minor forest produce, and the Act recognizes the right of forest-dwelling communities to own, collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce, including bamboo.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Indian Forest Act amendment of 2017 removed bamboo grown in non-forest areas from the definition of 'tree', but did not grant a general right to fell bamboo in forest areas.
- Option C
While Statement 3 is correct, Statement 2 is also correct. Bamboo is explicitly included as a minor forest produce under the FRA.
- Option D
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 2017 amendment to the Indian Forest Act facilitated bamboo cultivation on non-forest land, not the felling of bamboo in forest areas.