12 sample questions are shown here; sign up free to practise all 75.
Q1Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2023
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on international borders or coastal areas, Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly twoCorrect
- CAll three
- DNone
Explanation
Correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because Home Guards are organized primarily under State-level laws and rules, not under a single Central Home Guards Act. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Home Guards function as an auxiliary to the police for internal security, and Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States for border and coastal vigilance.
Q2Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2023
Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
- BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
- CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correctCorrect
Explanation
Correct. The Flag Code of India, 2002 prescribes a 3:2 length-to-width ratio (Statement II is correct). However, 600 mm x 400 mm is not listed among the approved standard sizes in the Flag Code, making Statement I incorrect despite maintaining the correct ratio.
Q3Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2023
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
Statement 2: The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person held under preventive detention.
Statement 3: According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly twoCorrect
- CAll three
- DNone
Explanation
Correct. Statement 1 is correct because Article 355 imposes a duty on the Union to protect States against internal disturbance. Statement 2 is correct because Article 22 carves preventive detention out of general arrest safeguards, including the right to legal counsel. Statement 3 is incorrect because POTA did allow certain police confessions to be admissible as evidence, subject to procedural safeguards.
Q4Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2023
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, prisons are managed by State governments with their own rules and regulations for day-to-day prison administration.
Statement II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct?
- ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement ICorrect
- BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
- CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Explanation
Correct. Prison administration is handled by State Governments because prisons are in the State List (Entry 4) of the Seventh Schedule. The Prisons Act, 1894 reflected this provincial/state control over prison administration, so Statement II correctly explains the administrative arrangement described in Statement I.
Q5Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2023
With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Action — Act under which it is covered
1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms — Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer engaged in duties — Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire endangering personal safety — Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- AOnly one
- BOnly twoCorrect
- CAll three
- DNone
Explanation
Correct. Pair 1 is correctly matched because Section 6 of the Official Secrets Act, 1923 prohibits unauthorized use of police or military uniforms. Pair 3 is correctly matched because the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 specifically addressed celebratory gunfire endangering public safety. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched because the Indian Evidence Act deals with admissibility of evidence, not the offence of interfering with officers.
Q6Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2021
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 onlyCorrect
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. During judicial custody, the accused is lodged in jail, and the investigating officer must obtain the court's permission to interrogate the suspect. This safeguard protects the accused from coercive police action.
Q7Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2021
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied because it becomes a matter of right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 onlyCorrect
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. States frame their own parole rules and prison administration rules since prisons are a State subject under the Seventh Schedule. Parole remains a discretionary grant, not an absolute right.
Q8Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2021
At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
- AMinistry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- BMinistry of Panchayati Raj
- CMinistry of Rural Development
- DMinistry of Tribal AffairsCorrect
Explanation
Correct. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry for the effective implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006, as the law primarily concerns recognition of forest rights of Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
Q9Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2020
Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. States cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 4 only
- B2 and 4 onlyCorrect
- C3 only
- D1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Correct. Under the Aadhaar framework, States cannot share Aadhaar data with private corporations, and Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act allows Aadhaar to be required for receipt of benefits and subsidies funded from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Q10Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2019
Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell bamboos grown in forest areas.
2. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 onlyCorrect
- C3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 includes bamboo in the definition of minor forest produce, and the Act recognizes the right of forest-dwelling communities to own, collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce, including bamboo.
Q11Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2018
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
Statement 2: Once issued, an Aadhaar number can never be deactivated or omitted by the issuing authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2Correct
Explanation
Correct. Aadhaar is an identity document, not proof of citizenship or domicile. The UIDAI retains the power to deactivate or cancel Aadhaar numbers under specified circumstances such as duplicate entries or fraud, making Statement 2 also incorrect.
Q12Polity & Governance·Important Acts and Rights-Based GovernancePYQ 2018
Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council for Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90 percent of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 2
- B2 onlyCorrect
- C1 and 3
- D3 only
Explanation
Correct. Passing the Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with NCTE guidelines is required for appointment to teach elementary classes under the RTE framework. NCTE, not State Councils, sets the minimum qualifications.