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Q1Polity & Governance·State ExecutivePYQ 2025
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of office.
Statement II: No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during the term of office.
Statement III: Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- AI and II only
- BII and III only
- CI and III only
- DI, II and IIICorrect
Explanation
Correct. Article 361 protects the Governor from being answerable to courts for official acts (Statement I) and bars criminal proceedings during the term of office (Statement II). Article 194 provides legislative privilege to members for anything said in the House (Statement III).
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incomplete. Statement III is also correct. Members of a State Legislature enjoy parliamentary privilege under Article 194 for anything said in the House.
- Option B
Incomplete. Statement I is also correct. Article 361(1) provides that the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of office.
- Option C
Incomplete. Statement II is also correct. Article 361(2) bars criminal proceedings against the Governor during the term of office.
Q2Polity & Governance·State ExecutivePYQ 2025
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his or her own discretion.
Statement II: The President of India can, on his or her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- AStatement I onlyCorrect
- BStatement II only
- CBoth Statement I and Statement II
- DNeither Statement I nor Statement II
Explanation
Correct. Article 163(1) explicitly mentions that the Governor shall act in his discretion in matters where the Constitution requires him to do so. Statement II is wrong because the President cannot directly reserve a State bill; only the Governor can reserve a bill under Article 200.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Incorrect. Statement II is wrong. The President has no independent power to reserve a State bill. A bill reaches the President for consideration only when the Governor reserves it under Article 200.
- Option C
Incorrect. Only Statement I is correct. The Constitution does explicitly provide for discretionary powers of the Governor, but the President cannot bypass the Governor to reserve a State bill.
- Option D
Incorrect. Statement I is correct. Article 163 of the Constitution expressly mentions the Governor acting in discretion in certain specified situations.
Q3Polity & Governance·State ExecutivePYQ 2024
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
Statement 2: A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in one State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 onlyCorrect
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. Statement 1 is wrong because it is the President, not the Governor, who specifies Scheduled Tribes under Article 342. Statement 2 is correct because the ST list is state-specific, meaning a community may be recognised in one State but not in another.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong. Under Article 342, Scheduled Tribes are specified by the President through a public notification after consultation with the Governor, but the Governor does not independently declare a community as a Scheduled Tribe.
- Option C
Incorrect. Only Statement 2 is correct. The Governor is consulted but does not have the power to declare Scheduled Tribes; that power lies with the President under Article 342.
- Option D
Incorrect. Statement 2 is correct. Scheduled Tribe status is state-specific and a community may have ST status in one State but not in another.
Q4Polity & Governance·State ExecutivePYQ 2019
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or recent active politics?
- AFirst Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
- BRajamannar Committee (1969)
- CSarkaria Commission (1983)Correct
- DNational Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Explanation
Correct. The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1983) recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State, a detached figure not involved in recent active politics, to ensure impartiality and federal neutrality.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. The First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) dealt broadly with administrative reorganisation but is not specifically known for this recommendation about gubernatorial appointments.
- Option B
Incorrect. The Rajamannar Committee (1969) was a Tamil Nadu state-level committee that examined Centre-State relations but is not credited with this specific recommendation on Governors.
- Option D
Incorrect. The NCRWC (2000), also known as the Venkatachaliah Commission, made its own recommendations on gubernatorial reform but the specific recommendation described here is attributed to the Sarkaria Commission.
Q5Polity & Governance·State ExecutivePYQ 2018
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
Statement 2: The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2Correct
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. Article 361 gives the Governor immunity from criminal proceedings during the term of office. Article 158 protects the Governor's emoluments and allowances from diminution during that term.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incomplete. While Statement 1 is correct under Article 361(2), Statement 2 is also correct under Article 158(3). Both statements accurately reflect constitutional provisions.
- Option B
Incomplete. While Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is also correct. Article 361(2) provides immunity from criminal proceedings during the Governor's term.
- Option D
Incorrect. Both statements are correct. They are based on Articles 361 and 158 of the Constitution respectively.
Q6Polity & Governance·State ExecutivePYQ 2014
Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 and 2 only
- B1 and 3 onlyCorrect
- C2, 3 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Correct. Reporting constitutional breakdown under Article 356 and reserving certain bills for the President under Article 200 are recognized discretionary powers of the Governor. These do not require ministerial advice.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. While sending a report under Article 356 is a discretionary power, appointing ministers under Article 164 is ordinarily done on the advice of the Chief Minister, not as a discretionary power.
- Option C
Incorrect. Appointing ministers is done on the Chief Minister's advice, and making rules of business under Article 166 is done on the advice of the Council of Ministers, not as discretionary powers.
- Option D
Incorrect. Only items 1 and 3 are discretionary powers. Appointing ministers and making business rules are exercised on advice, not at the Governor's personal discretion.
Q7Polity & Governance·State ExecutivePYQ 2013
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.
(b) The judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his or her post.
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.
- AIn India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
- BThe judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
- CNo procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his or her postCorrect
- DIn the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
Explanation
Correct. The Constitution under Article 156 states that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President but prescribes no impeachment or removal procedure analogous to those for the President or judges.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Article 153 allows the same person to be appointed as Governor for two or more States simultaneously, a provision introduced by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.
- Option B
Incorrect. High Court judges are appointed by the President under Article 217 after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor, and the Chief Justice of the High Court. The Governor does not appoint them.
- Option D
Incorrect. In Union Territories with legislatures such as Delhi and Puducherry, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor but the appointment process involves constitutional and statutory provisions specific to each UT, and the framing of this statement is misleading.
Q8Polity & Governance·State ExecutivePYQ 2009
Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh.
2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- A1 onlyCorrect
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Correct. The Governor of Punjab has been concurrently serving as the Administrator of the Union Territory of Chandigarh, which is the joint capital of Punjab and Haryana.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Incorrect. Lakshadweep has its own Administrator appointed by the President of India. The Governor of Kerala does not serve as Administrator of Lakshadweep.
- Option C
Incorrect. Only Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because Lakshadweep has a separately appointed Administrator, not the Governor of Kerala.
- Option D
Incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as the Governor of Punjab does serve concurrently as Administrator of Chandigarh.
Q9Polity & Governance·State ExecutivePYQ 1995
Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this?
1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2Correct
Explanation
Correct. A Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President and may be removed before five years. Equally, a Governor may continue beyond five years until a successor enters office. Neither conclusion can be validly drawn from Article 156.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incorrect. Article 156(1) states the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. This 'pleasure doctrine' means the President can remove a Governor at any time before the completion of the five-year term.
- Option B
Incorrect. Article 156(1) also provides that the Governor shall continue to hold office until a successor enters upon office, meaning a Governor may serve beyond five years if no replacement is appointed.
- Option C
Incorrect. Neither deduction follows from Article 156. The five-year term is subject to the pleasure of the President (allowing early removal) and the continuation clause (allowing extension beyond five years).
Q10Polity & Governance·State Executive
Which of the following rights does the Advocate General of a State enjoy?
1. Right to speak in the proceedings of the State Legislature
2. Right to vote in the State Legislature
3. Right to take part in the proceedings of any committee of the State Legislature of which he is named a member
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 and 3 onlyCorrect
- B1 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Correct. Under Article 177, the Advocate General has the right to speak in and take part in proceedings of the State Legislature and its committees, but does not have the right to vote as he is not a member of the Legislature.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Incomplete. The Advocate General also has the right to participate in committee proceedings under Article 177.
- Option C
Incorrect. The Advocate General does not have the right to vote in the Legislature. Only elected or nominated members can vote.
- Option D
Incorrect. The Advocate General cannot vote in the State Legislature. The right to vote is exclusive to members of the Legislature.
Q11Polity & Governance·State Executive
Which of the following is correct about the Governor's power to promulgate ordinances under Article 213?
1. An ordinance can be promulgated only when the State Legislature is not in session.
2. Certain categories of ordinances require the President's instructions before promulgation.
3. An ordinance ceases to operate six weeks after the Legislature reassembles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 and 3 only
- B1, 2 and 3Correct
- C1 and 2 only
- D2 and 3 only
Explanation
Correct. All three statements are correct. Ordinances require the Legislature to be out of session (Article 213(1)), certain ordinances need presidential instructions (Article 213(1) proviso), and they expire six weeks after the Legislature reassembles (Article 213(2)(a)).
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option A
Incomplete. Statement 2 is also correct. Article 213(1) requires the President's instructions before the Governor promulgates ordinances in certain circumstances, such as when the bill would have required the President's previous sanction.
- Option C
Incomplete. Statement 3 is also correct. The six-week expiry provision is in Article 213(2)(a).
- Option D
Incomplete. Statement 1 is also correct. The Governor can only promulgate ordinances when the Legislature is not in session.
Q12Polity & Governance·State Executive
Which of the following is NOT a ground on which the Governor can return a bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration under Article 200?
- AThe bill is a Money BillCorrect
- BThe Governor disagrees with the policy underlying the bill
- CThe bill has constitutional infirmities
- DThe bill contains provisions that may derogate from the High Court's position
Explanation
Correct. Under Article 200, the Governor can return a bill for reconsideration with a message requesting that the House reconsider it, but this power does not extend to Money Bills. A Money Bill can only be assented to, withheld, or reserved.
Why the other options are incorrect
- Option B
Incorrect. Policy disagreement is a valid reason for the Governor to return a bill for reconsideration, provided it is not a Money Bill.
- Option C
Incorrect. Constitutional concerns are a legitimate basis for returning a bill for reconsideration.
- Option D
Incorrect. While bills derogating from the High Court's position must be reserved for the President, the Governor could also return such a bill for reconsideration before that stage.