Current affairs — 22 August 2026

53 prelims-relevant stories, each distilled into quick facts — with a 53-question quiz at the end.

Anant Ambani’s giant Vantara zoo announces ‘reset’, rethinks imports

Vantara announced a governance and conservation reset after criticism of its animal imports. Former CITES head John Scanlon will chair a new governing council controlling acquisitions. The centre has withdrawn pending live-animal import applications, imposed a moratorium through June 2027 and says it will shift from ex-situ rescue toward in-situ support in range countries.

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Prelims pointers

  • John Scanlon, who led CITES from 2010 to 2018, will chair Vantara's new governing council.
  • The governing council will have authority over decisions concerning animal acquisitions.
  • Vantara withdrew all pending applications to import live animals as part of voluntary commitments submitted to CITES.
  • The centre imposed a minimum one-year moratorium on animal imports lasting until June 2027.
  • The 3,500-acre Vantara facility at Jamnagar was inaugurated in 2025 and houses more than 260 Asian elephants.
Indian Economytreasury-bills

Auction of 91-Day, 182-Day and 364-Day Treasury Bills

RBI announced a ₹24,000 crore price-based multiple-price auction of 91-day, 182-day and 364-day Treasury Bills for August 27, with settlement on August 28, 2026. Retail investors may bid non-competitively through Retail Direct, subject to a maximum allocation of 5% of the notified amount.

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Prelims pointers

  • The notified amounts are ₹9,000 crore for 91-day, ₹8,000 crore for 182-day and ₹7,000 crore for 364-day bills.
  • The Treasury Bill auction is on August 27, 2026, and settlement is on August 28, 2026.
  • The auction is price-based and follows the multiple-price method.
  • Retail investors may bid non-competitively through Retail Direct, with allocation capped at 5% of the notified amount.
  • Competitive E-Kuber bids close at 11:30 a.m.; non-competitive bids close at 11:00 a.m.
Indian Economyliquidity-operations

RBI to conduct 7-day Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) auction under LAF on August 24, 2026

RBI announced a seven-day Variable Rate Reverse Repo auction under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility for August 24, 2026. The notified amount is ₹2.5 lakh crore, the bidding window is 9:30-10:00 a.m., and reversal is due on August 31. Existing operational guidelines from February 13, 2020 remain applicable.

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Prelims pointers

  • RBI scheduled the Variable Rate Reverse Repo auction for Monday, August 24, 2026.
  • The notified auction amount is ₹2,50,000 crore and the tenor is seven days.
  • The auction window runs from 9:30 a.m. to 10:00 a.m. on August 24, 2026.
  • The reversal date for the liquidity operation is Monday, August 31, 2026.
  • Operational guidelines from RBI Press Release 2019-2020/1947 dated February 13, 2020 remain unchanged.
Polity & Governancerural-employment

Supreme Court lauds scrapped MGNREGA as a ‘good, effective scheme’

While hearing a delayed-wage petition, the Supreme Court praised the repealed MGNREGA but directed that challenges concerning its successor, the VB-G RAM G Act, be brought afresh. The hearing debated whether a statutory rural-work guarantee could be elevated under Article 21, although the Court noted that the Constitution places right to work in Part IV.

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Prelims pointers

  • The petition sought delayed MGNREGA wages and compensation and was filed by activist Aruna Roy.
  • The petition also sought to connect the rural-work guarantee with Article 21's right to life.
  • Justice Joymalya Bagchi located the constitutional aspiration of right to work in Part IV, not among fundamental rights.
  • The successor VB-G RAM G Act increased guaranteed work from 100 to 125 days per household annually.
  • The report says the Centre-State funding ratio shifted from 90:10 under the old framework to 60:40 under the new law.
Polity & Governancejudicial-services

Supreme Court trims law practice requirement to 1 year for judicial service

The Supreme Court modified its May 2025 ruling on entry-level judicial recruitment, reducing the prior legal-practice requirement from three years to one. A 2:1 majority also created transitional protection for exams notified through March 31, 2027. Selected transition-period candidates without experience will serve as trainees and complete a structured clerkship.

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Prelims pointers

  • The Supreme Court reduced mandatory prior legal practice for entry-level judicial exams from three years to one year.
  • The decision was a 2:1 ruling by Chief Justice Surya Kant and Justices A.G. Masih and K. Vinod Chandran.
  • Exams notified from May 25, 2025 through March 31, 2027 receive transitional eligibility regardless of experience.
  • Selected transition-period candidates will serve one year as trainee judicial officers and complete a further one-year clerkship.
  • The revised one-year prior-practice arrangement applies to examinations notified after April 1, 2027.
Indian Economygovernment-securities

Auction of State Government Securities

Seven States offered State Government Securities worth ₹20,100 crore through an RBI auction scheduled for August 25, 2026. Competitive and non-competitive bids will use E-Kuber, with limited non-competitive allocation and Retail Direct access. The securities qualify as eligible government-security investments for banks’ Statutory Liquidity Ratio.

Source published PrelimsAI reviewed/published
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Prelims pointers

  • The seven participating States offered securities with an aggregate face value of ₹20,100 crore.
  • The auction is scheduled through RBI’s E-Kuber system on August 25, 2026.
  • Up to 10% of each stock may be allotted under the non-competitive facility, with a 1% single-bid cap per stock.
  • State Government Stock is issued in a minimum nominal amount of ₹10,000 and multiples of ₹10,000 thereafter.
  • The securities count towards banks’ SLR under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Polity & Governancesanitation-workers

Grievances registration line soon for sanitation workers

The National Commission for Safai Karmacharis plans to launch a missed-call grievance facility on its August 23 foundation day. The pilot will gauge complaint volumes before a call centre is created. The Commission is also pursuing compensation for sewer deaths, wage parity, safer work conditions and broader registration under the NAMASTE profiling exercise.

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Prelims pointers

  • The National Commission for Safai Karmacharis plans to launch the missed-call facility on August 23.
  • The facility will begin as a pilot measuring grievance volume before a possible NCSK call centre.
  • NCSK is engaging the Labour Ministry on wage parity with skilled or semi-skilled workers.
  • Profiling of sewer and septic-tank workers under NAMASTE was reported to be stalled at about 90,000 workers.
  • In May, NCSK sought occupational insurance and directions against 5 a.m. shifts for women cleaners.

Trade unions sound alarm over Supreme Court judgment on definition of industry

Trade unions criticised a nine-judge Supreme Court ruling that the expansive 1978 interpretation of 'industry' will not govern the newly implemented Industrial Relations Code. They highlighted Section 2(p), its exclusions and uncertainty for labour protection. The earlier Bangalore Water Supply ruling had used a three-part test based on systematic activity, employment relations and goods or services.

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Prelims pointers

  • The new ruling was delivered by a nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court.
  • The earlier expansive interpretation came from the 1978 Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. R. Rajappa case.
  • The 1978 ruling was by a seven-judge Bench led by Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer.
  • The quoted triple test includes systematic activity, an employer-employee relationship, and goods or services for human wants.
  • AITUC raised concerns about the exclusions contained in Section 2(p) of the Industrial Relations Code.
Sciencenaval-modernisation

Cochin Shipyard delivers INS Mangrol to Indian Navy

Cochin Shipyard Limited delivered INS Mangrol, the third vessel in an eight-ship anti-submarine warfare shallow watercraft series, to the Indian Navy. The indigenously designed and constructed vessel is named after Mangrol in Gujarat and carries lightweight torpedoes, indigenous anti-submarine warfare rockets and advanced shallow-water sonars.

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Prelims pointers

  • INS Mangrol is the third vessel in a planned series of eight anti-submarine warfare shallow watercraft.
  • The vessel was indigenously designed and constructed by Cochin Shipyard Limited.
  • INS Mangrol is named after the coastal township of Mangrol in Gujarat.
  • Its systems include lightweight torpedoes and indigenous anti-submarine warfare rockets.
  • The vessel also carries advanced shallow-water sonars, according to the shipyard communication.
Environmentsolar-power

Nagaland inks deal for first private-sector solar plant

Nagaland signed a power purchase agreement with Tvaksas Renewable Private Limited for a 20 MW solar plant at Lapa Lampong village in Tizit, Mon district. The State's first private-sector solar plant is to be commissioned within 20 months under a 25-year agreement at a regulator-approved tariff of ₹4.12 per kWh.

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Prelims pointers

  • The proposed solar plant has an initial capacity of 20 MW and is Nagaland's first private-sector solar plant.
  • The project site is Lapa Lampong village at Tizit in Nagaland's Mon district.
  • The power purchase agreement runs for 25 years and provides a commissioning period of 20 months.
  • The fixed tariff is ₹4.12 per kWh, approved by the Nagaland Electricity Regulatory Commission.
  • Nagaland's peak demand is 203 MW and is projected to reach 482 MW by 2034-35.
Geographycauvery-water-sharing

A dry spell along the Cauvery

A deficient monsoon and low reservoir inflows intensified Cauvery water stress in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Karnataka adopted rotational canal releases and sought a lower daily release to Tamil Nadu, while Tamil Nadu kept the Mettur dam closed and pressed for the mandated flow. Paddy cultivation, drinking-water needs and groundwater were all under strain.

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Prelims pointers

  • The Cauvery Water Management Authority was set up by the Union government in June 2018.
  • The CWMA handles Cauvery sharing among Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Puducherry.
  • Tamil Nadu's annual Cauvery quota is 177.25 TMC feet, of which 123.14 TMC feet is due during the south-west monsoon.
  • Karnataka asked for daily releases to Tamil Nadu to be reduced from 12,000 cusecs to 10,000 cusecs.
  • Tamil Nadu did not open the Mettur dam on June 12; its level was about 85 feet against a 120-foot capacity.
History & Culturesiddhavatam-fort

Beyond the walls of Siddhavatam Fort

Siddhavatam or Sidhout Fort stands on the Penna River in Andhra Pradesh's Kadapa district between the Palakonda and Veligonda ranges. Its inscriptions and architecture trace Chola, Matli, Vijayanagara, Golconda, Mughal, Kadapa Nawab, Mysore, Nizam and British phases. ASI restoration and State tourism projects seek to conserve and interpret the site.

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Prelims pointers

  • Siddhavatam Fort stands on the left bank of the Penna or Pinakini River in Kadapa district between the Palakonda and Veligonda ranges.
  • A 1233 CE Tamil-Grantha inscription associated with Chola ruler Rajendra III records construction of the Siddheswara temple's western gopuram.
  • An ASI record attributes the fort's initial construction in 1303 CE to Ananta Raja of the Matli rulers.
  • Control passed through Mir Jumla II around 1682, Abdul Nabi Khan in 1714, Hyder Ali in 1779–80 and the British by 1800.
  • Siddhavatam served as the British administrative headquarters of Cuddapah district from 1807 to 1812 before Penna floods prompted relocation.
Indian Economymsme-investment

Uttar Pradesh, Japan’s Yamanashi sign four MoUs; ₹600-crore fund for MSMEs

Uttar Pradesh and Japan's Yamanashi prefecture announced four MoUs covering skills, technical training, tourism and Japanese global capability centres. Yamanashi also announced a ₹600-crore fund for Uttar Pradesh MSMEs. A dedicated Yamanashi Desk at Invest U.P. and coordination with JETRO and JICA are intended to facilitate investment and speed implementation.

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Prelims pointers

  • Uttar Pradesh and Yamanashi advanced four MoUs covering skills, technical training, tourism and Japanese global capability centres.
  • Yamanashi announced a ₹600-crore fund intended to support the micro, small and medium enterprise sector in Uttar Pradesh.
  • A dedicated Yamanashi Desk at Invest U.P. is intended to provide a focused channel for investors and businesses from the prefecture.
  • Regular coordination with JETRO and JICA is intended to identify opportunities, address investor concerns and accelerate projects.
  • The announcements were made at a Japan–India Business Networking Event in Lucknow attended by Yamanashi Governor Kotaro Nagasaki.
Geographycoastal-erosion

The coast that made Chennai

Chennai's modern shoreline reflects centuries of settlement and major human alteration. The late-19th-century artificial harbour trapped sediment to its south, helping form the present Marina, while interrupting sand supply and intensifying erosion northward. Later ports, urban development and hard structures added pressure, now compounded by sea-level rise and intense storms.

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Prelims pointers

  • Madraspatnam was established in the 17th-century coastal landscape between the Cooum and Adyar rivers and grew around Fort St. George.
  • Chennai's artificial harbour, constructed in the late 19th century, interrupted longshore sand movement along the coast.
  • Sediment trapped south of the harbour gradually helped form the broad modern Marina, while reduced sand supply contributed to erosion northward.
  • Kamarajar Port, formerly Ennore Port, and Kattupalli added more breakwaters and structures along Chennai's northern coast.
  • Sea-level rise, intense storms and continued development are expected to add pressure to Chennai's already modified shoreline.
Scienceebola-vaccine

More than 16,000 doses of Ervebo vaccine arrive in Ebola-hit DRC

A shipment of 16,250 Ervebo vaccine doses reached the Democratic Republic of Congo during its 17th Ebola outbreak. Ervebo is approved for Zaire ebolavirus, not the circulating Bundibugyo strain, so WHO plans both frontline deployment and a human trial of possible cross-protection. The outbreak had caused 2,516 deaths among 5,290 confirmed cases.

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Prelims pointers

  • A shipment of 16,250 Ervebo vaccine doses reached the DRC on August 21, 2026.
  • WHO made 70,000 doses available: 50,000 for frontline and health workers and 20,000 for a clinical trial.
  • Ervebo is approved against the Zaire strain, not the Bundibugyo strain circulating in the DRC outbreak.
  • The outbreak had caused 2,516 deaths among 5,290 confirmed cases in the cited Congolese data.
  • The DRC's 17th Ebola outbreak was declared on May 15, although transmission may have begun earlier.
Polity & Governanceladakh-governance

Ahead of MHA-Ladakh talks in September, Centre’s outreach sees withdrawal of cases against Leh protestors

The Ladakh administration will withdraw cases against 25 people found to have limited or no involvement in the September 2025 Leh violence, while nine charge-sheeted cases will remain before courts. The move precedes MHA talks with the Leh Apex Body and Kargil Democratic Alliance over legislature, statehood and special constitutional safeguards.

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Prelims pointers

  • The Ladakh administration said cases against 25 people with limited or no involvement in the September 2025 violence would be withdrawn lawfully.
  • Charge sheets were filed against nine people where evidence was available, and those cases will remain before competent courts.
  • A total of 87 people were booked after the September 24, 2025 violence in Leh; four civilians died and about 90 people were injured.
  • The Leh Apex Body and Kargil Democratic Alliance are key civil-society groups participating in the dialogue with the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • Demands discussed in the Ladakh dialogue include statehood, a legislature, Sixth Schedule safeguards and Article 371-like special provisions.
Scienceh1n1-surveillance

J.P. Nadda reviews H1N1 situation, healthcare preparedness in Delhi

Union Health Minister J.P. Nadda reviewed H1N1 influenza surveillance and healthcare preparedness on August 21, with particular attention to Delhi. The review covered ILI and SARI trends, testing, laboratory surveillance, beds, critical care and supplies. The Ministry said it was coordinating with States, Union Territories, hospitals and laboratories for early detection and timely management.

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Prelims pointers

  • The August 21 review examined H1N1 preparedness nationally, with particular focus on the National Capital.
  • The surveillance review covered influenza-like illness and severe acute respiratory infection trends, testing and laboratory surveillance.
  • Delhi's preparedness assessment included hospital-bed availability, critical-care facilities and other necessary supplies.
  • The Ministry advised respiratory and hand hygiene and prompt medical advice for severe symptoms or breathing difficulty.
  • The Health Ministry said it was coordinating with States, Union Territories, hospitals and laboratories for early detection and timely clinical management.
Sciencehpv-vaccination

Karnataka seventh in HPV vaccination coverage in country, reports just one adverse event following immunisation

Karnataka administered 4,15,939 of 5,08,030 allocated single-dose HPV vaccine vials by August 20, reaching 81.9% coverage and ranking seventh nationally. The campaign targets girls aged 14–15 and had recorded one minor adverse event following immunisation in the State. District coverage ranged from 98.3% in Vijayanagar to 47.6% in Dakshina Kannada.

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Prelims pointers

  • Karnataka administered 4,15,939 of 5,08,030 allocated single-dose HPV vaccine vials by August 20, 2026, achieving 81.9% coverage.
  • The nationwide HPV vaccination programme was formally launched on February 28, 2026, in Ajmer, Rajasthan; Karnataka began its rollout the same day.
  • The current campaign covers girls aged 14–15, and Karnataka delivers the vaccine through public primary, community, district and teaching-health facilities.
  • Karnataka reported one minor adverse event following immunisation among more than four lakh doses administered in the State.
  • Vijayanagar had Karnataka's highest district coverage at 98.3%, while Dakshina Kannada had the lowest at 47.6%.
Environmentganga-floodplains

NGT issues notice to Centre against amendment on Ganga floodplains

NGT issued notice on a petition challenging a Jal Shakti Ministry amendment that removed the Ganga floodplains’ construction-free label and divided flood risk into active, regulatory and warning zones. The Tribunal sought replies but did not stay the amendment, listing the matter for October 27, 2026.

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Prelims pointers

  • The challenged amendment modifies the River Ganga Authorities Order, 2016 and was notified through the National Mission for Clean Ganga.
  • The active floodplain is now tied to a one-in-five-year flood return period.
  • The regulatory zone covers five-to-25-year flooding, while the warning zone covers 25-to-100-year flooding.
  • A 2017 six-member NGT Bench treated 100 metres from the river edge as a no-development zone from Haridwar to Kanpur.
  • NGT sought replies and listed the case for October 27, 2026, but did not stay the amendment.
Indian Economysugar-prices

Crop damage, production dip, and festival demand led to price hike, says govt.

Sugar prices rose sharply across 18 States and Union Territories amid lower production, crop damage, festival demand, tighter global supply and alleged hoarding. The Centre rejected ethanol diversion as the cause, imposed dealer and bulk-consumer stock limits, and permitted duty-free import of 10 lakh metric tonnes of raw sugar.

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Prelims pointers

  • Odisha’s sugar price was ₹64.72 per kilogram on August 21, 2026, while the national average was ₹58.23.
  • Current-season sugar production was expected at 306 LMT, below the initial State estimate of 343 LMT.
  • Sugar diverted to ethanol declined from about 12% in 2022-23 to about 9% in 2025-26.
  • A 400-tonne stock limit applies to sugar dealers nationwide from August 1 to November 30.
  • The government permitted duty-free import of 10 LMT of raw sugar to increase domestic availability.

'Risks weakening worker safeguards': Congress on SC's ‘industry’ definition judgment

The Supreme Court held that the 1978 Bangalore Water Supply interpretation of ‘industry’ will not govern fresh cases under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020. The majority refined the triple test for the repealed Industrial Disputes Act but protected pending and concluded proceedings under that Act; Justice B.V. Nagarathna dissented.

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Prelims pointers

  • Bangalore Water Supply v. A. Rajappa (1978) established a triple test for ‘industry’ under Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act.
  • The triple test examines systematic activity, employer-employee cooperation and production or distribution of goods or services satisfying human wants.
  • The 2026 majority said pending old-Act cases must still follow the 1978 interpretation.
  • Section 2(p) of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 is not controlled by the old Act’s Section 2(j) interpretation.
  • Justice B.V. Nagarathna dissented; Justices Dipankar Datta and Ujjal Bhuyan also found reconsideration of the 1978 verdict unnecessary.
Polity & Governancestare-decisis

Supreme Court dismisses PIL petition that challenged death by hanging | Explained

The Supreme Court dismissed a PIL challenging hanging as the sole method of execution under Section 354(5) CrPC, corresponding to Section 393(5) BNSS. A two-judge Bench held that the larger-Bench precedent in Deena remained binding and that no conclusive evidence showed lethal injection to be demonstrably more humane.

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Prelims pointers

  • Section 354(5) CrPC, corresponding to Section 393(5) BNSS, prescribes hanging as the method of execution.
  • Deena v. Union of India (1983), decided by a three-judge Bench, upheld hanging as constitutionally valid.
  • Shashi Nayar v. Union of India (1992), a Constitution Bench case, approved the position in Deena.
  • The 2026 case was heard by Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta and decided on August 18.
  • The Court found no conclusive scientific or empirical evidence that lethal injection is demonstrably more humane.
Sciencelivestock-health

National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP)

NADCP, launched in 2019, uses nationwide vaccination and surveillance against Foot and Mouth Disease and Brucellosis. It has delivered 147.16 crore FMD doses, while reported FMD outbreaks fell from 132 in 2019 to 40 in 2025. The programme is now integrated within the broader Livestock Health and Disease Control Programme.

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Prelims pointers

  • NADCP targets biannual FMD vaccination and one lifetime brucellosis vaccination for female bovine calves aged four to eight months.
  • The programme has administered 147.16 crore FMD vaccine doses and benefited 8.04 crore farmers.
  • Reported FMD outbreaks declined from 132 in 2019 to 40 in 2025; brucellosis outbreaks fell from 22 to 15.
  • More than 39 crore livestock were registered on the Bharat Pashudhan Portal by July 2026 with unique 12-digit tag IDs.
  • The revised LHDCP has a ₹2,010 crore outlay for 2026-27 and subsumes NADCP, LH&DC and Pashu Aushadhi.
Current Affairsenergy-diplomacy

Official Visit of Shri Hardeep Singh Puri, Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas, to Mauritius

India and Mauritius exchanged an oil-and-gas cooperation MoU and concluded a five-year IOCL-STC supply agreement covering Mauritius’s full import requirements for petrol, diesel and aviation turbine fuel. The visit also advanced biofuel cooperation and launched a Mauritius Biofuels Country Landscape Policy framework developed with the Global Biofuels Alliance Secretariat.

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Prelims pointers

  • The five-year IOCL-STC agreement covers Mauritius’s full import requirement for motor spirit, high-speed diesel and aviation turbine fuel.
  • The oil-and-gas MoU covers fuel supply, training and capacity building, and biofuels cooperation.
  • Indian Oil (Mauritius) Limited is developing a 27.5 TMT bunker marine-fuel storage facility at Mer Rouge, Port Louis.
  • India has annual refined-petroleum output of 267 MMT from 23 refineries, according to the release.
  • Mauritius is a founding member of the Global Biofuels Alliance, launched during India’s G20 presidency.
Indian Economyrural-enterprises

Empowered Committee Reviews Proposals to Accelerate Growth of Women-led Rural Enterprises

A Rural Development Ministry committee reviewed four DAY-NRLM incubator proposals linking Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat with IIT Patna, IIM Jammu, IIM Lucknow and IIT Gandhinagar. The proposed programmes would support more than 600 women-led rural enterprises and complement 14 operating incubators across 13 States.

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Prelims pointers

  • The incubator proposals fall under the Non-Farm Livelihoods component of DAY-NRLM.
  • Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat were paired respectively with IIT Patna, IIM Jammu, IIM Lucknow and IIT Gandhinagar.
  • The four proposed programmes together would support more than 600 high-potential rural enterprises.
  • Fourteen incubator programmes currently operate across 13 States and support around 2,100 rural SHG enterprises.
  • The committee also considered expansion of SVEP in West Bengal and Goa.
Sciencedrug-regulation

Government Restricts Manufacture, Sale and Distribution of Fixed Dose Combinations Containing Chlorpheniramine Maleate and Phenylephrine Hydrochloride for Use in Children Below Four Years

The government has extended restrictions to every fixed-dose combination containing chlorpheniramine maleate and phenylephrine hydrochloride, requiring warnings against use in children below four. The measure, based on expert and DTAB recommendations, was issued under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, and takes effect upon Gazette publication.

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Prelims pointers

  • The restriction covers all fixed-dose combinations containing both chlorpheniramine maleate and phenylephrine hydrochloride.
  • The mandatory warning says that the fixed-dose combination shall not be used in children below four years of age.
  • Manufacturers must display the warning on the label, package insert and promotional literature.
  • The decision followed recommendations of an Expert Committee and the Drugs Technical Advisory Board.
  • The notification was issued under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, and applies from Gazette publication.
Indian Economysocial-security

EPFO urges establishments to utilize the Employees’ Enrolment Campaign, 2026 to ensure social security for employees outside EPF coverage

EPFO’s Employees’ Enrolment Campaign 2026 offers employers a one-time route to enrol eligible workers omitted from EPF coverage between April 1, 2009 and March 31, 2026. Open until October 31, it uses face-authenticated UANs through UMANG and contribution remittance through the Electronic Challan-cum-Return.

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Prelims pointers

  • EEC 2026 was notified with effect from June 29, 2026, and remains open until October 31, 2026.
  • The campaign covers eligible employees omitted from EPF coverage between April 1, 2009 and March 31, 2026.
  • A declared employee must be alive and continuing with the establishment on the date of declaration.
  • A Face Authentication-based UAN must be generated through the UMANG App for each declared employee.
  • Contributions for declared employees are to be remitted through the Electronic Challan-cum-Return.
Environmentbiochar-elephant-habitat

Assam elephant habitat recovery hope rides on biochar from invasive plants

An Assam project is clearing three invasive alien plants from a two-hectare elephant habitat, using manual removal, seed-ball regeneration and conversion of biomass into biochar to support native vegetation and influence soil-related properties.

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Prelims pointers

  • The selected site covers two hectares in Khalingduar Reserve Forest under Assam’s Dhansiri Forest Division.
  • The project targets Lantana camara, Chromolaena odorata and Mikania micrantha.
  • Aaranyak is implementing the project with support from the International Elephant Foundation.
  • Biochar is made by heating organic waste in a controlled environment with little or no oxygen.
  • The project combines manual invasive-plant removal, seed-ball-assisted regeneration, biochar conversion and repeat monitoring.
Geographyextreme-el-nino-forecast

U.K. forecasts ‘biggest’ El Nino will smash records, spark hottest year

Britain’s national weather agency forecast that the 2026 El Niño could exceed three degrees Celsius above normal and help make 2027 the hottest year, as Pacific anomalies and expected global rainfall shifts pointed to an exceptionally strong event.

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Prelims pointers

  • The report defines El Niño when tropical eastern Pacific water temperatures are at least 0.5 degrees Celsius above baseline.
  • The 2026 event was forecast to peak above three degrees Celsius, described as unprecedented in modern climate records.
  • Aggregated forecasts indicated a possible November anomaly of 3.9 degrees Celsius, above the three-degree anomaly in 2015.
  • The pattern typically brings dryness to Southeast Asia and Australia but wetter conditions to Peru and Ecuador.
  • El Niño events recur irregularly every two to seven years, and the opposite cooling pattern is La Niña.
Environmentkaziranga-animal-corridors

Four years after Supreme Court-formed panel’s nudge, Assam mum on construction in Kaziranga animal corridors

A Supreme Court-constituted committee told an RTI applicant it had received no Assam response to requested construction details for Kaziranga’s nine animal corridors, despite reminders, amid continuing disputes over construction, quarrying, mining and the reserve’s Eco-Sensitive Zone.

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Read the original report from The Hindu — Energy & Environment (opens in a new tab)

Prelims pointers

  • The Supreme Court’s April 14, 2019 order barred mining and quarrying along Kaziranga’s southern boundary.
  • The same order prohibited new construction on private land within nine identified wildlife and animal corridors.
  • The Central Empowered Committee met Assam officials on March 3, 2022 to discuss implementation of the order.
  • The CEC said it had received no requested information from Assam despite reminders in April 2022 and March 2026.
  • Assam’s environment department refused a July RTI response on the ground that the matter was sub judice, without naming the case.
Indian Economyforex-swap-inflows

Data on Forex inflows via FCNR(B) Deposits, External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) and Overseas Foreign Currency Borrowings (OFCBs) under Reserve Bank’s Swap facility

RBI reported USD 72,848 million of inflows under its special USD-INR forex swap facility through 21 August 2026. FCNR(B) deposits accounted for USD 65,397 million, OFCBs USD 4,860 million and ECBs USD 2,591 million.

Source published PrelimsAI reviewed/published
Read the original report from Reserve Bank of India — Press Releases (opens in a new tab)

Prelims pointers

  • RBI introduced the special USD-INR forex swap facility on 8 June 2026.
  • Authorised Dealer Banks reported total inflows of USD 72,848 million through 21 August 2026.
  • FCNR(B) deposits accounted for USD 65,397 million of the reported inflows.
  • OFCB and ECB inflows were USD 4,860 million and USD 2,591 million, respectively.
  • The scheme closes on 31 August 2026 for FCNR(B) deposits and 31 December 2026 for ECBs and OFCBs.
Current Affairsair-force-exercises

INDIAN AIR FORCE CONCLUDES HIGH-TEMPO MULTINATIONAL EXERCISES PITCH BLACK AND UDARA SHAKTI 2026

The Indian Air Force concluded Exercise Pitch Black 2026 in Australia and Exercise Udara Shakti 2026 in Malaysia. Rafales joined forces from over 20 nations in Australia, while the Malaysia phase involved combat sorties and tactical manoeuvres with the Royal Malaysian Air Force.

PrelimsAI reviewed/published
Read the original report from PIB (opens in a new tab)

Prelims pointers

  • Exercise Pitch Black 2026 was hosted in Australia by the Royal Australian Air Force.
  • The IAF deployed frontline Rafale aircraft alongside air forces from over 20 participating nations.
  • Pitch Black included Large Force Employment missions in a high-threat, multi-domain environment.
  • Exercise Udara Shakti 2026 took the IAF contingent directly to Subang in Malaysia.
  • IAF crews flew with and against Su-30MKM and F/A-18 Hornet aircraft during the Malaysian engagement.
Scienceindigenous-shipbuilding

DELIVERY OF MANGROL – THE THIRD ANTI-SUBMARINE WARFARE SHALLOW WATER CRAFT BUILT BY CSL, KOCHI

Cochin Shipyard Limited delivered Mangrol, its third Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft, to the Indian Navy on 21 August 2026. The waterjet-propelled vessel has over 80 per cent indigenous content and coastal ASW, surveillance, low-intensity operations and mine-warfare capabilities.

PrelimsAI reviewed/published
Read the original report from PIB (opens in a new tab)

Prelims pointers

  • Mangrol was delivered to the Indian Navy on 21 August 2026 by Cochin Shipyard Limited.
  • It is the third Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft built by the Kochi shipyard.
  • The ship has over 80 per cent indigenous content and is propelled by waterjets.
  • Its stated roles include coastal anti-submarine warfare, underwater surveillance and mine warfare.
  • Mangrol preserves the name of a former Indian Naval minesweeper that served until 2004.
Polity & Governancesiliguri-corridor-security

Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah undertakes a review of the security of Siliguri corridor

The Union Home Minister reviewed Siliguri Corridor security, critical infrastructure and vital installations with central and West Bengal officials. Directions covered time-bound completion of pending works, stronger agency presence, removal of encroachments and measures against illegal immigration.

PrelimsAI reviewed/published
Read the original report from PIB (opens in a new tab)

Prelims pointers

  • The security review included MHA, MoRTH, Army, BSF, SSB and RPF officials.
  • The Multi Agency Centre's standing focus group presented progress and recommendations on the corridor.
  • The Home Minister directed time-bound completion of pending infrastructure works in the corridor.
  • Agencies were told to secure vital installations and keep the corridor free of encroachments.
  • The West Bengal government was urged to strengthen Civil Defence and Home Guards in the corridor.
Sciencebrics-chennai-consensus

Dr Jitendra Singh announces unanimous adoption of 'Chennai Declaration', reaffirming BRICS commitment to build effective, resilient and future- ready framework in science, technology and innovation

The 14th BRICS Science Ministerial Meet, chaired by India, unanimously adopted the Chennai Declaration or Consensus on science, technology and innovation. It prioritises people-centred cooperation, shared research infrastructure, open knowledge, talent mobility and practical joint projects.

PrelimsAI reviewed/published
Read the original report from PIB (opens in a new tab)

Prelims pointers

  • The Chennai Declaration was adopted unanimously at the 14th BRICS Science Ministerial Meet.
  • The Chennai Consensus places a people-centred and humanity-first approach at the centre of STI cooperation.
  • BRICS STI cooperation has sustained activity across 14 thematic working groups.
  • BRICS GRAIN concerns greater access and collaboration around research infrastructure.
  • The next BRICS STI Ministerial Meeting is scheduled under China's chairship in 2027.
Polity & Governancemission-zero-sanitation

National Workshop on "Mission Zero – Ending Fatalities in Sanitation Work"

A national Mission Zero workshop in Bhubaneswar focused on ending fatalities in sanitation work through mechanisation, institutional preparedness, appropriate technology, worker safety, social security and livelihood support. It brought together governments, ULBs, workers and technology stakeholders.

PrelimsAI reviewed/published
Read the original report from PIB (opens in a new tab)

Prelims pointers

  • The national Mission Zero workshop was held at Lokseva Bhawan in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
  • Its overarching objective was to achieve zero fatalities in sanitation work.
  • The workshop focused on institutional mechanisms, appropriate technology and mechanised sanitation services.
  • Participants included Urban Local Bodies, sanitation workers, civil society and technology providers.
  • The Mission Zero approach includes worker safety, social security and livelihood support.
Environmentaccess-benefit-sharing

NBA releases ₹2.82 crore of ABS funds to 27 State Biodiversity Boards, 3 UT Biodiversity Councils and ICAR-Indian Institute of Horticultural Research, Karnataka

The National Biodiversity Authority disbursed ₹2.82 crore under Access and Benefit-Sharing: ₹2.80 crore to 27 State Biodiversity Boards and three UT Biodiversity Councils, and ₹2.01 lakh to ICAR-IIHR. The allocations are tied to conservation, biodiversity documentation and related benefit-sharing uses.

PrelimsAI reviewed/published
Read the original report from PIB (opens in a new tab)

Prelims pointers

  • NBA disbursed ₹2.82 crore under the Access and Benefit-Sharing mechanism.
  • ₹2.80 crore was released to 27 State Biodiversity Boards and three UT Biodiversity Councils.
  • ICAR-IIHR is receiving ₹2.01 lakh linked to two microbial strains sourced from the institution.
  • Board and council uses include People's Biodiversity Registers and in-situ and ex-situ conservation.
  • The source links the disbursement to Target 13 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
Polity & Governancenational-honour-amendment

The Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026

The 2026 amendment extends existing offences concerning intentional prevention or disturbance of the national anthem to the national song, Vande Mataram, carrying the same penalties under the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.

Prelims pointers

  • The Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha on July 24, 2026 and passed there on July 29, 2026.
  • The Lok Sabha passed the Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill on July 30, 2026.
  • The 1971 Act penalises insults to the national flag, the Constitution of India and the national anthem.
  • Intentional prevention of anthem singing or disturbance of an assembly singing it can attract up to three years’ imprisonment, a fine, or both.
  • The Bill extends the anthem-related provisions to the national song, Vande Mataram.
Polity & Governancepublic-examinations-reform

The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026

The Public Examinations Amendment Bill raises punishments for unfair means, doubles service-provider debarment to eight years, enables a central special task force, and creates strict investigation, fast-track trial and appeal timelines, while PRS flags legal and practical concerns.

Prelims pointers

  • The Bill raises punishment for a person using unfair means to five-to-10 years and a fine up to Rs 50 lakh.
  • A service provider engaging in unfair means may be fined up to five crore rupees and debarred for eight years.
  • The central government may create a special task force, and investigation must be completed within two months.
  • Each state and Union Territory must designate a Court of Session as a Special Fast Track Court under the Bill.
  • Appeals from these special courts will lie before a two-judge High Court bench and are subject to stated filing timelines.
Indian Economymsme-amendment-bill

The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (Amendment) Bill, 2026

The MSME Development (Amendment) Bill, 2026 revises classification and voluntary registration, mandates TReDS settlement for CPSE purchases from MSMEs, sets mediation and arbitration timelines, changes award-payment safeguards, and decriminalises specified compliance failures.

Prelims pointers

  • The Bill empowers the central government to classify MSMEs using investment and turnover, with thresholds specified by notification.
  • Filing a registration memorandum would be voluntary for all MSMEs through notified central or state digital platforms.
  • Every CPSE must settle invoices for goods or services procured from MSMEs through the RBI-regulated TReDS platform.
  • Mediation must finish within 90 days from first appearance; failed mediation must be referred to arbitration within 30 days.
  • The Development Commissioner will adjudicate specified penalties, and appeals will lie before the MSME Secretary.
Polity & Governancedelayed-vital-registration

The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026

The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026 changes the authority for very delayed registration: when information is supplied more than two years after a birth or death, only a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class may issue the required order.

Prelims pointers

  • The Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on July 29, 2026 and passed there on July 31, 2026.
  • The Rajya Sabha passed the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill on August 4, 2026.
  • The Bill seeks to amend the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.
  • Under the existing provision described, information given after one year requires an order following verification and payment of a prescribed fee.
  • For a delay exceeding two years, the Bill permits only a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class to issue the order.
Polity & Governancefcra-amendment-rules

Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2026

The FCRA Amendment Rules, 2026 prescribe 105 permitted purposes, state-wise operation disclosures, fees, a ₹10 lakh threshold for “reasonable activity”, and a definition of key functionaries; PRS flags possible delegated-legislation concerns.

Prelims pointers

  • The Ministry of Home Affairs notified the FCRA Amendment Rules, 2026 on 22 June 2026.
  • The amendment Rules specify 105 permitted purposes across five programme categories.
  • Applicants must identify states of operation; multiple purposes cost ₹300 per purpose, and operation areas cost ₹300 per state or union territory.
  • Reasonable activity is defined as utilising at least ₹10 lakh of foreign contribution in the previous two financial years.
  • The Rules require registration forms to disclose organisational social-media accounts and recent activity and funding details.
Indian Economyncdc-amendment-bill

The National Co-operative Development Corporation (Amendment) Bill, 2026

The NCDC Amendment Bill, 2026 broadens the Corporation’s role from specified commodity programmes to co-operative development, widens eligible funding and investment recipients, expands foodstuffs and industrial-goods coverage, and permits information exchange.

Prelims pointers

  • The Bill seeks to amend the National Co-operative Development Corporation Act, 1962.
  • It defines co-operative development as assistance provided to co-operative societies directly or through an intermediary.
  • The Bill expands foodstuffs to include processed food and other edible products.
  • It removes the rural-location requirement attached to specified producers of industrial goods.
  • The Corporation may exchange credit or other information with RBI, the central government, banks and notified financial institutions.
Polity & Governancekerala-name-alteration

The Kerala (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2026

The Kerala (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2026 seeks to change the state’s name from Kerala to “Keralam” in the First Schedule of the Constitution, following a Kerala Legislative Assembly resolution passed in June 2024.

Prelims pointers

  • The Bill was introduced in Lok Sabha on 10 August 2026.
  • Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 11 August 2026.
  • Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 12 August 2026.
  • The Bill seeks to replace the state name Kerala with “Keralam” in the First Schedule of the Constitution.
  • The Kerala Legislative Assembly passed a resolution on the proposed name change in June 2024.
Polity & Governancetribunals-reforms-bill

The Tribunals Reforms Bill, 2026

The Tribunals Reforms Bill, 2026 would repeal the 2021 Act, establish a National Tribunals Commission, structure tribunal selection and appointments, set five-year terms and age limits, and provide grounds for removal.

Prelims pointers

  • The Bill seeks to repeal the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021.
  • The proposed National Tribunals Commission would conduct vacancy selection and maintain a National Tribunals Data Grid.
  • The Commission would have one chairperson, two judicial members and two technical members.
  • Technical members must have at least 25 years of experience in specified fields.
  • The central government must make a tribunal appointment within three months of the committee recommendation.
Indian Economytaxation-laws-amendment

The Taxation and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026

The Taxation and Other Laws Amendment Bill, 2026 replaces a June ordinance and expands tax exemptions for specified foreign investors, diamond and electronics businesses, offshore funds and data-centre arrangements, while changing taxation of business-trust SPVs.

Prelims pointers

  • The Bill seeks to replace the Income-tax Amendment Ordinance issued on 5 June 2026.
  • FII and BIS exemptions cover interest and capital gains from government securities arising on or after 1 April 2026.
  • Specified rough-diamond and electronics warehousing exemptions run from 1 October 2026 through 31 March 2041.
  • The Bill removes several conditions for eligible offshore investment funds managed from India.
  • It raises the surcharge for a special-purpose vehicle of a business trust from 10% to 25%.
Polity & Governanceindian-statistical-institute-bill

The Indian Statistical Institute Bill, 2026

The Indian Statistical Institute Bill, 2026 would replace the 1959 Act, make ISI a not-for-profit body corporate, define its academic objects, and establish governance through a Visitor, Board, councils and Director while revising central powers.

Prelims pointers

  • The Bill was introduced in Lok Sabha on 3 August 2026 and seeks to replace the ISI Act, 1959.
  • It would convert ISI from a registered society into a not-for-profit body corporate.
  • The President of India would be the Visitor of the Institute.
  • The Board of Governors would be ISI’s principal policy-making executive body.
  • The Bill creates an academic council, a finance committee and a management council for each centre.
Polity & Governancebankers-books-evidence

The Bankers’ Books Evidence Bill, 2026

The Bankers’ Books Evidence Bill, 2026 seeks to replace the 1891 Act, recognise qualifying electronic bank records as evidence, define when courts may compel bank records or testimony, and permit extension of the framework to other financial-sector entities.

Prelims pointers

  • The Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on August 3, 2026 and passed by the Rajya Sabha on August 10, 2026.
  • It seeks to repeal and replace the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 1891 while retaining most of its provisions.
  • Qualifying electronic or digital records of a banker’s book may be admissible, valid and legally enforceable as evidence.
  • A bank officer generally cannot be compelled to produce books or testify when the bank is not a party, except by court order for special cause.
  • The central government may extend the Bill’s provisions to other financial-sector entities through a notification.
Indian Economyindustrial-relations-rules

Industrial Relations (Central) Rules, 2026

The Industrial Relations (Central) Rules, 2026 operationalise parts of the 2020 Code on worker committees, negotiating unions, layoffs, retrenchment, closure and re-skilling, but PRS finds important delegated procedures, especially on grievances and trade unions, remain unspecified.

Prelims pointers

  • The Rules apply to establishments for which the central government is the appropriate government under the 2020 Code.
  • Works Committees are required at 100 or more workers, while Grievance Redressal Committees apply at 20 or more workers.
  • A sole registered trade union needs membership of at least 30% of total workers to be recognised as the negotiating union.
  • Prior applications are required 15 days before layoff, 60 days before retrenchment and 90 days before closure.
  • Employers must transfer 15 days’ wages to the re-skilling fund within 10 days, for payment to workers within 45 days.
Polity & Governancesupreme-court-strength

The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026

The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 replaces a May ordinance and raises the statutory number of Supreme Court judges, excluding the Chief Justice of India, from 33 to 37.

Prelims pointers

  • The Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on July 20, 2026 and passed there on August 3, 2026.
  • The Rajya Sabha passed the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill on August 5, 2026.
  • It seeks to replace an ordinance issued on May 16, 2026.
  • The Bill amends the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.
  • It raises the number of Supreme Court judges excluding the Chief Justice of India from 33 to 37.
Sciencelvm3-upper-stage-reentry

Atmospheric Re-entry of LVM3 M5 Upper Stage on 30 July 2026

ISRO reported monitoring of the July 30, 2026 atmospheric re-entry of the LVM3-M5 C25 upper stage, whose under-nine-month orbital lifetime complied with the IADC 25-year rule and India’s stricter five-year debris-free mission requirement.

Prelims pointers

  • The LVM3-M5 C25 upper stage launched on November 2, 2025 and re-entered on July 30, 2026.
  • The mission placed CMS-03 into a GTO with a 170 km perigee and 29,970 km apogee.
  • The upper stage was passivated after spacecraft injection to limit the risk of accidental break-up.
  • IS4OM monitored orbital decay, while Sriharikota’s Multi Object Tracking Radar tracked the stage where feasible.
  • Its residual orbital lifetime was within nine months, meeting the cited IADC and Indian debris-mitigation recommendations.
Sciencesslv-first-stage-test

ISRO tests an improved version of the first stage of Small Satellite Launch vehicle (SSLV)

ISRO successfully ground-tested an improved SSLV first-stage solid booster at Sriharikota, qualifying changes to propulsion, thermal protection and nozzle production, with an estimated payload increase of about 100 kg to Low Earth Orbit.

Prelims pointers

  • The improved SSLV SS1 solid booster was ground-tested on August 11, 2026 at Sriharikota.
  • Design changes include a higher burn rate in two segments, optimised thermal protection, nozzle-process improvements and lower mass.
  • Instrumentation measured more than 600 parameters across ignition, ballistic, structural, thermal, dynamic and acoustic performance.
  • The static test qualified the SS1 design improvements, and measured performance was close to predictions.
  • The improved first stage is estimated to add about 100 kg to SSLV’s payload capability to Low Earth Orbit.
Polity & Governanceiran-security-council

Mohsen Rezaee | The Islamic apparatchik

Iranian hardliner and former IRGC commander Mohsen Rezaee has become secretary of the Supreme National Security Council and the Supreme Leader’s representative on it. The appointment elevates a veteran of the IRGC’s founding and Iran-Iraq war era into a central wartime strategic role amid broader changes in Iran’s security leadership.

Source published PrelimsAI reviewed/published
Read the original report from The Hindu — International (opens in a new tab)

Prelims pointers

  • Mohsen Rezaee has been appointed secretary of Iran’s Supreme National Security Council and the Supreme Leader’s representative on it.
  • Rezaee replaces Mohammed Bagher Zolqadr as secretary of the Supreme National Security Council.
  • In 1979, Rezaee sat on the 12-member committee that drafted the IRGC’s founding charter.
  • Rezaee became commander-in-chief of the IRGC in 1981 and held that post for 16 years.
  • He previously served as secretary of the Expediency Discernment Council, which resolves Guardian Council-legislature differences.

Today's quiz

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Question 1 of 53

Which change forms part of Vantara's announced conservation reset according to the report?

Answer key

Take the quiz above first. This key is for revision after you finish.

  1. Q1

    Which change forms part of Vantara's announced conservation reset according to the report?

    (B) Withdrawing pending live-animal import applications

  2. Q2

    What is the total notified amount in RBI’s auction of 91-day, 182-day and 364-day Treasury Bills?

    (B) ₹24,000 crore

  3. Q3

    Which combination correctly describes RBI’s announced VRRR operation?

    (A) ₹2.5 lakh crore, seven days

  4. Q4

    According to the Court's observation in the report, the constitutional aspiration concerning the right to work is located in which part?

    (B) Part IV on Directive Principles

  5. Q5

    Under the Supreme Court's transitional arrangement, which candidates may appear regardless of prior legal experience?

    (A) Candidates in exams notified through March 31, 2027

  6. Q6

    What is the minimum nominal amount for the State Government Stocks in this RBI auction?

    (C) ₹10,000

  7. Q7

    What is the immediate purpose of NCSK's planned missed-call facility for safai karmacharis?

    (A) Register worker grievances

  8. Q8

    Which element was NOT part of the 1978 'triple test' for determining an industry as quoted in the report?

    (D) A compulsory profit motive

  9. Q9

    Consider the following systems listed for INS Mangrol: 1. Lightweight torpedoes 2. Indigenous ASW rockets 3. Advanced shallow-water sonars. Which are present?

    (D) 1, 2 and 3

  10. Q10

    Which combination correctly describes Nagaland's first private-sector solar plant project?

    (A) 20 MW at Tizit

  11. Q11

    Consider the following statements about Cauvery management in the report: 1. CWMA was set up in June 2018. 2. It covers Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Puducherry. Which is correct?

    (C) Both statements 1 and 2

  12. Q12

    Siddhavatam Fort is situated on the left bank of which river in present-day Andhra Pradesh?

    (A) Penna River

  13. Q13

    Which institution will host the dedicated desk announced to facilitate investment from Japan's Yamanashi prefecture?

    (A) Invest U.P.

  14. Q14

    What contrasting shoreline effect did Chennai's artificial harbour produce according to the article?

    (A) Accretion to the south and erosion to the north

  15. Q15

    Why is a clinical trial of Ervebo planned during the reported DRC outbreak?

    (A) To test cross-protection against the Bundibugyo strain

  16. Q16

    Which two organisations are identified as Ladakh's key civil-society participants in talks with the Ministry of Home Affairs?

    (A) LAB and KDA

  17. Q17

    Which pair of surveillance indicators was explicitly reviewed in the H1N1 preparedness meeting?

    (A) ILI and SARI trends

  18. Q18

    Consider the following statements on Karnataka's HPV vaccination campaign: 1. It uses single-dose vials. 2. The current beneficiaries are girls aged 14–15. Which is/are correct?

    (C) Both statements 1 and 2

  19. Q19

    Under the amended three-band classification, which return period defines the Ganga’s ‘active floodplain’?

    (B) One-in-five-year flood

  20. Q20

    Which measure was announced to augment domestic sugar availability amid the price rise?

    (A) Duty-free import of 10 LMT of raw sugar

  21. Q21

    Which statement correctly reflects the Supreme Court’s 2026 ruling on the definition of ‘industry’?

    (C) Pending old-Act cases retain the 1978 interpretation, while the new Code is not bound by it

  22. Q22

    Why did the two-judge Supreme Court Bench refuse to overturn the rule prescribing hanging?

    (B) A larger-Bench precedent remained binding and contrary evidence was inconclusive

  23. Q23

    Consider the following about NADCP: 1. FMD vaccination is biannual. 2. Brucellosis vaccination targets female bovine calves aged four to eight months. Which is correct?

    (C) Both statements

  24. Q24

    Which fuels are covered by the five-year supply agreement between IOCL and Mauritius’s STC?

    (B) Motor spirit, high-speed diesel and aviation turbine fuel

  25. Q25

    Which proposed State-incubator partner pair is correctly matched?

    (A) Bihar-IIT Patna

  26. Q26

    Where must the new warning on the specified fixed-dose combinations be displayed?

    (B) On the label, package insert and promotional literature

  27. Q27

    Consider the following statements about EEC 2026: 1. It covers eligible omissions from April 2009 to March 2026. 2. UAN generation uses face authentication through UMANG. Which is correct?

    (C) Both statements

  28. Q28

    Which three invasive alien plants are specifically targeted by the Assam habitat-recovery project?

    (A) Lantana, Chromolaena and Mikania

  29. Q29

    What sea-surface temperature anomaly is used in the report’s definition of El Niño?

    (A) At least 0.5°C above baseline

  30. Q30

    How many wildlife and animal corridors around Kaziranga were covered by the reported construction prohibition?

    (A) Nine corridors

  31. Q31

    Which category contributed the largest reported inflow under RBI's special swap facility?

    (A) FCNR(B) deposits

  32. Q32

    Which IAF aircraft was deployed for Exercise Pitch Black 2026 in Australia?

    (A) Rafale aircraft

  33. Q33

    Mangrol, delivered to the Indian Navy in August 2026, belongs to which craft category?

    (A) Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft

  34. Q34

    Which body presented progress and recommendations during the Siliguri Corridor security review?

    (A) MAC Standing Focus Group on Siliguri Corridor

  35. Q35

    What does BRICS GRAIN primarily seek to advance according to the Chennai Consensus?

    (A) Access to and collaboration around research infrastructure

  36. Q36

    Which objective was central to the Mission Zero national workshop in Bhubaneswar?

    (A) Ending fatalities in sanitation work

  37. Q37

    Under the stated ABS disbursement, what amount went to 27 State Boards and three UT Councils?

    (A) ₹2.80 crore

  38. Q38

    Which composition is brought within the anthem-related offence provisions by the 2026 amendment?

    (A) Vande Mataram

  39. Q39

    For how long would a service provider engaging in unfair means be debarred under the amended framework?

    (A) Eight years

  40. Q40

    Which entities must settle all procurement invoices from MSMEs through TReDS under the Bill?

    (A) Central public sector enterprises

  41. Q41

    Under the 2026 Bill, who alone may authorise registration when the delay exceeds two years?

    (A) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class

  42. Q42

    What minimum utilisation defines “reasonable activity” under the FCRA Amendment Rules, 2026?

    (A) ₹10 lakh

  43. Q43

    What rural-area condition does the NCDC Amendment Bill, 2026 remove?

    (A) Location of specified industrial producers

  44. Q44

    Which constitutional schedule would be changed by the Kerala name-alteration Bill?

    (A) First Schedule

  45. Q45

    Which institution would maintain the National Tribunals Data Grid under the Bill?

    (A) National Tribunals Commission

  46. Q46

    Which institution is exempted alongside FIIs on specified government-securities income?

    (A) Bank for International Settlements

  47. Q47

    Who would serve as the Visitor of the Indian Statistical Institute under the Bill?

    (A) President of India

  48. Q48

    Which circumstance is defined by the Bill as a possible ‘special cause’ for compelling production of bankers’ books?

    (A) Doubt about an entry’s accuracy

  49. Q49

    What minimum share of total workers must a sole registered trade union have for recognition under the Rules?

    (A) At least 30%

  50. Q50

    How many Supreme Court judges, excluding the Chief Justice of India, would the Bill provide for?

    (A) 37 judges

  51. Q51

    Which ISRO system kept watch on the LVM3-M5 upper stage’s orbital decay and predicted its re-entry?

    (A) IS4OM

  52. Q52

    About how much additional Low Earth Orbit payload capability is estimated after induction of the improved SS1?

    (A) About 100 kg

  53. Q53

    Which Iranian body, previously served by Mohsen Rezaee, resolves differences between the Guardian Council and legislature?

    (B) Expediency Discernment Council

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